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Code d'Examen: 1z0-482
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Data Integrator 11g Certified Implementation Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 71 Q&As

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NO.1 Select the three correct options for Token Checking in the EDQ parser.
A. Checking against a list of values.
B. Checking for duplicates.
C. Checking against a list of patterns.
D. Checking for typing errors.
E. Checking against a list of regular expressions.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.2 Which two ODI knowledge modules are included in the Application Adapter for Hadoop?
A. IKM Oracle Incremental Update
B. IKM Hive Transform
C. IKM SQL to File Append
D. IKM FiletoHive
Answer: B,D

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Reference:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E27101_01 /doc.10/e27365 /odi.htm

NO.3 Select the two correct statements about the Date Profiler.
A. It can profile string dates written in a variety of formats, such as DD/MM/YYYY or MM/DD/YYYY .
B. It provides a distribution for the day in the year, such as February 21, regardless of the year.
C. It allows the EDQ user to define a valid range of dates.
D. By clicking a date in blue, the user can drill down to the records that carried that value.
E. It rejects February 29 as an invalid date.
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 You want to add a new CDC subscriber in ODI after you have started the Journal process, what
steps do you need to go through in order to use this new subscriber?
A. Drop Journal, remove existing subscribers, add a new subscriber, start Journal, and edit the
default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
B. Drop Journal,add anew subscriber, start Journal, and remove the default Journalizing filter in your
Interfaces
C. Drop Journal, add a new subscriber, start Journal, and edit the default Journalizing filter in your
Interfaces
D. Add anew subscriber and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
Answer: C

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NO.5 Do all project developers using ODI need to consolidate their own local metadata repositories?
A. No, ODI uses a centralized relational metadata repository that all the developers share.
B. No, ODI proprietary metadata server allows all developers to share the common metadata of a
specific project.
C. Yes, you have to invoke a dedicated web service to synchronize the metadata using the Oracle
Service Bus.
D. Yes, the local metadata needs to be transmitted via FTP and synchronized with a dedicated
proprietary engine, creating a common metadata model for all developers.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are loading a file into a database but the file name is unknown at design time and will
have to be passed dynamically to a Package at run time; how do you achieve this?
A. Create a variable, use it in Topology at the File dataserver-level, and add it to a package as a
Declare Variable step
B. Create a variable, use it in Topology at the File dataserver-level, and add it to a package as a Set
Variable step
C. Create a variable, use it as the Resource Name of the File datastore, and add it to a package as a
Declare Variable step
D. Create a variable, use it as the Resource Name of the File datastore, and add it to a package as a
Set Variable step
Answer: D

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NO.7 Identify one correct statement regarding Exception steps in Load Plans.
A. Exception steps cannot be defined in a Load Plan.
B. Exception steps can only be defined for Parallel Steps in a Load Plan
C. Exception steps can only be defined for Serial Steps in a Load Plan.
D. Exception steps can be defined for most Step types in a Load Plan.
Answer: D

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Reference:https://s3.amazonaws.com/rmc_docs/oug_ireland_2012_rittman_odi.pdf(page 88)

NO.8 In an ODI interface, to declare a lookup, is there a dedicated graphical object?
A. No, in ODI you can declare a lookup only using a join definition.
B. No, in ODI you can declare a lookup only using an ODI procedure.
C. Yes, there is a specific object, you click it and a wizard helps the developer to set the lookup.
D. Yes, there is a specific object and you need to prepare a configuration file to use it.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-062
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c: Installation and Administration)
Questions et réponses: 166 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-485
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Exadata Database Machine Models X3-2 and X3-8 Implementation Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 71 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements correctly describe the relationship between data files and logical
database structures?
A. A segment cannot span data files.
B. A data file can belong to only one tablespace.
C. An extent cannot span data files.
D. The size of an Oracle data block in a data file should be the same as the size of an OS block.
Answer: B,C

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Reference: https://mohibalvi.wordpress.com/tag/alter-tablespace/

NO.2 The hr user receiver, the following error while inserting data into the sales table: ERROR at line
1:
ORA-01653; unable to extend table HR.SALES by 128 in tablespace USERS
On investigation, you find that the users tablespace uses Automnrif Segment Space Management
(ASSM). It is the default tablespace for the HR user with an unlimited quota on it.
Which two methods would you use to resolve this error?
A. Altering the data life associated with the USERS tablespace to ex automatically
B. Adding a data life to the USERS tablespace
C. Changing segment space management for the USERS tablespace to manual
D. Creating a new tablespace with autoextend enabled and changing the default tablespace of the
HR user to the new tablespace
E. Enabling resumable space allocation by setting the RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT parameter to a
nonzero value
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the Log Writer process?
A. It writes when it receives a signal from the checkpoint process (CKPT).
B. It writes concurrently to all members of multiplexed redo log groups.
C. It writes after the Database Writer process writes dirty buffers to disk.
D. It writes when a user commits a transaction.
Answer: D

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Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01 /server.102 /b14220/process.htm (see log writer
process (LGWR))

NO.4 What happens if a maintenance window closes before a job that collects optimizer statistics
completes?
A. The job is terminated and the gathered statistics are not saved.
B. The job is terminated but the gathered statistics are not published.
C. The job continues to run until all statistics are gathered.
D. The job is terminated and statistics for the remaining objects are collected the next time the
maintenance window opens.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about the logical storage structure of an Oracle database?
A. An extent contains data blocks that are always physically contiguous on disk.
B. An extent can span multiple segments,
C. Each data block always corresponds to one operating system block.
D. It is possible to have tablespaces of different block sizes.
E. A data block is the smallest unit of I/O in data files.
Answer: B,D

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Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01 /server.112 /e40540/logical.htm#CNCPT250

NO.6 Which three factors influence the optimizer's choice of an execution plan?
A. the optimizer_mode initialization parameter
B. operating system (OS) statistics
C. cardinality estimates
D. object statistics in the data dictionary
E. fixed baselines
Answer: A,B

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Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01 /server.102 /b14211 /optimops.htm

NO.7 Examine the resources consumed by a database instance whose current Resource Manager
plan is displayed.
SQL> SELECT name, active_sessions, queue_length, Consumed_cpu_time, cpu_waits,
cpu_wait_time FROM v$rsrc_consumer_group;
NAMEACTIVE_SESSIONS QUEUE_LENGTH CONSUMED_CPU_WAITS CPU_WAIT_TIME
OLTP__ORDER__ENTRY1029690 467 6709 OTHES__GROUPS 0 059823664089 60425 SYS_GROUP 1
02420704 914 19540 DS.S_QUERIES4245946603004 55700
Which two statements are true?
A. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error.
B. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to OTHE_GROUPS fails with an error.
C. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited
for the CPU due to resource management.
D. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited
for the CPU due to I/O waits and latch or enqueue contention.
E. A user belonging to the DSS__QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but
the session will be queued.
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 Examine the parameters for your database instance:
NAMETYPE VALUE
undo_management string AUTO undo_retentioninteger 12 00 undo_tablespace string UNDOTBS1
You execute the following command:
SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE undotbs1 RETENTION NOGUARANTEE;
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. Undo data is written to flashback logs after 1200 seconds.
B. Inactive undo data is retained for 1200 seconds even if subsequent transactions fail due to lack of
space in the undo tablespace.
C. You can perform a Flashback Database operation only within the duration of 1200 seconds.
D. An attempt is made to keep inactive undo for 1200 seconds but transactions may overwrite the
undo before that time has elapsed.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-882
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Certified Professional, MySQL 5.6 Developer)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-485
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Exadata Database Machine Models X3-2 and X3-8 Implementation Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 71 Q&As

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NO.1 Exadata Database Machine offers an Intelligent Platform Management Interface for the
various components in the Exadata product. Which option is true?
A. IPMI can be used to remotely start and stop servers.
B. IPMI can be used to remotely log in to the operating system.
C. IPMI commands can be executed by using SNMP traps.
D. IPMI settings can be secured by backing up the Oracle Linux installation on the storage system.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
IPMI - short for Intelligent Platform Management Interface - is an interface standard that allows
remote management of a server from another using standardized interface. The servers in the
Exadata Database Machine follow that. It's not an Exadata command but rather a general Linux one.
To power on a cell or database server, issue this from another server: # ipmitool -H prolcel01-ilom
-U root chassis power on
To stop a server, use the shutdown command. To stop immediately and keep it down, i.e. not reboot,
execute:# shutdown -h -y now

NO.2 A customer has three databases named CC. FIN, and DW. The CC database is for their
CallCenter. Even a slight decrease in the response time of the database would mean more people
"on hold" in their data center. The orders received through the CallCenter are stored in the Finance
(FIN) database. Both databases, CC and FIN, serve as sources for the Data Warehouse (DW)
database. All databases use the same Automatic Storage Management (ASM) diskgroup and
therefore, the same physical disks on Exadata storage. The customer wants to dynamically control
the resources that are available for the CallCenter database because this has direct impact on their
operations?
Which option should be implemented?
A. DBRMon the CC database
B. DBRM on all the databases
C. IORM, because DBRM cannot be changed for an existing session
D. IORM and DBRM
Answer: A

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NO.3 Consider this CellCLI command:
CellCLI> CREATE GRIDDISK ALL HARDDISK PREFIX=data, size=423G;
Which two statements describe what happens when you execute this command?
A. It creates one 423 GB grid disk on the first available cell hard disk.
B. It creates one 423 GB grid disk on each available cell hard disk.
C. It creates grid disks on the outermost 423 GB that is available on each hard disk.
D. It creates grid disks on the innermost 423 GB that is available on each hard disk.
E. It creates an Exadata Smart Flash Cache on all flash drives.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
* Example: CellCLI> create griddisk all harddisk prefix=temp_dg, size=570G This command will
create 12 Griddisks, each of 570G in size from the outer (fastest) sectors of the underlying Harddisks.
It fills up the first 2 Celldisks entirely, because they have just 570G space free - the rest is already
consumed by the OS partition.

NO.4 Changes for Linux system performance optimization
Which of the software changes listed are permitted on Exadata Storage Servers?
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. only 3 '
C. none
D. only 2
E. only 1 and 2
F. only 2 and 3
Answer: E

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Explanation:
1. The Storage Server Patch is responsible for keeping our cell nodes always up-todate, fixing
possible problems, and this patch includes different component patches, like kernel patches,
firmware, operation system, etc... for the Storage Server. Incorrect: 3,4: security scan tools changes
and Linux system performance optimization changes would be on the database server.
4. The mpstat output from OS Watcher shows a database node as being 90% idle on an average.
What would you do to get a full picture of CPU utilization on the entire Exadata RAC cluster?
A. Average the mpstat id1 output from all the nodes.
B. Ask application users if they have noticed a slowdown in screen response.
C. Look for an increase in batch job servicing times.
D. A & B above
Answer: A

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NO.5 Identify three best practices for applying asmdeactivationoutcome es on Exadata Database
Servers and Exadata Storage Servers?
A. Backing up database servers and storage cells is not recommended before performing planned
maintenance.
B. Database server updates can be rolled back using the the "yum downgrade" procedure.
C. Bundle patches do not require testing before being installed on a production system.
D. It is recommended that Exadata systems with Data Guard configured use the "Standby First"
patching approach.
E. Patching should never be interrupted due to a connection drop. It is therefore recommended that
you use VNC or the screen utility.
F. Before patching cells in a rolling manner, you must check asmdeactivationoutcome amModestatus
and make sure that cells on all disks are online and that disks can be deactivated.
Answer: D,E,F

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NO.6 Consider the following software changes that are performed manually on a Linux server:
1.Changes for Linux kernel firewall configuration
2.Changes for custom performance monitoring tools
3.Changes for security scan tools

NO.7 Which two statements are true about enabling write-back flash cache?
A. When enabling write-back flash cache in a non rolling manner, it is important to ensure that
asmdeactivatonoutcome is set to YES and asmModestatus is set to ONLINE for all grid disks.
B. Before using write-back flash cache, you need to verify the minimum required versions.
C. Before write back-flash cache is enabled, you need to drop the Flash Cache first.
D. The setting flashCacheMode should be set to writeback by updating cellinit.ora and restarting
cellsrv.
E. When enabling write-back flash cache in a rolling manner, dcli should be used to inactivate the
grid disks on all cells first.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
B: Exadata storage version 11.2.3.2.1 is the minimum version required to use this write back flash
cache option.
C: Steps for Enabling Write back flash cache:
First of all, you don't need the stop CRS or database (This is ROLLING method) ,you can do it cell
by cell.
*drop flashcache
*Be sure asmdeactivationoutcome is YES is before disabling grid disk

NO.8 You get a Host Unreachable error when you attempt to connect to a server through a network
terminal command line. What are two other ways in which you can connect?
A. Use the ILOM Web GUI.
B. Use the dcli command at the root prompt on a database node.
C. Attach a terminal device to the back panel of the server with a serial cable.
D. Connect by using SQL *Plus.
E. Log in as root on the database node using the Net1 IP address.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
In addition to gaining shell access via SSH to manage your Exadata servers, you can also access them
from the Integrated Lights Out Management (ILOM) console or KVM console.
and should typically not require modifications unless you have changed network information inside
your database machine.
Note: A KVM switch (with KVM being an abbreviation for "keyboard, video and mouse") is a
hardware device that allows a user to control multiple computers from one or more[1] keyboard,
video monitor and mouse. Although multiple computers areconnected to the KVM, typically a
smaller number of computers can be controlled at any given time

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-062
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c: Installation and Administration)
Questions et réponses: 166 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-590
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle VM 3 for x86 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 82 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z1-034
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Upgrade Oracle9i/10g OCA to Oracle Database 11g OCP)
Questions et réponses: 148 Q&As

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NO.1 You have set the value of the NLS_TIMESTAMP_TZ_FORMAT parameter to YYYY-MMDD. The
default format of which two data types would be affected by this setting?
A. DATE
B. TIMESTAMP
C. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
D. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
E. TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIME ZONE
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 Examine these Data Pump commands to import objects to non-existent users hr1 and oe1.
S expdp system/manager Schemas =hr,oe directory =EXP_ DIR include = table
$ impdp system/manager Schemas = hr1,oe1 Directory = EXP_DIR Dumpfile = export.dat
Remap_schema =hr:hr1,oe :oe1
What would be achieved by running the above commands?
A. expdp will fail because no path has been defined for the dumpfile.
B. expdp will succeed but Impdp will fail because users do not exist.
C. impdp will create two users called hrl and oe1 and import all objects to the new schemas
D. impdp will create two users called hrl and oe1 and import tables owned by hr and oe schemas to
hr1 and oe1 schemas, respectively.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Identify two options that Oracle recommends while configuring the backup and recovery
environment for your recovery catalog. (Choose two.)
A. configuring control file autobackup to be ON
B. backing up data filed only and not the archived redo log files
C. running the recovery catalog database in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
D. setting the retention policy to a REDUNDANCY value greater than 1
E. backing up the recovery catalog to the same disk as that of the target database
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 You create two resource plans, one for data warehouse loading jobs at night and the other for
application jobs at day time. You want the resource plans to activate automatically so that the
resource allocation is optimum as desired by the activity.
How would you achieve this?
A. Implement job classes
B. Implement Scheduler windows
C. Implement the mapping rule for the consumer groups
D. Set the SWITCH_TIME resource plan directive for both the resource plans
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statements are true regarding system-partitioned tables? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Only a single partitioning key column can be specified.
B. All DML statements must use partition-extended syntax.
C. The same physical attributes must be specified for each partition.
D. Unique local indexes cannot be created on a system-partitioned table.
E. Traditional partition pruning and partitionwise joins are not supported on these tables.
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 You are managing a 24*7 database. The backup strategy for the database is to perform
user-managedbackups.
Identify two prerequisites to perform the backups. (Choose two.)
A. The database must be opened in restricted mode.
B. The database must be configured to run in ARCHIVELOG mode.
C. The tablespaces are required to be in backup mode before taking the backup.
D. The tablespaces are required to be in read-only mode before taking the backup
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Which two statements about Oracle Direct Network File System (NFS) are true? (Choose two.)
A. It bypasses the OS file system cache.
B. A separate NFS interface is required for use across Linux, UNIX, and Windows platforms.
C. It uses the operating system kernel NFS layer for user tasks and network communication modules.
D. File systems need not be mounted by the kernel NFS system when being served through Direct
NFS.
E. Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating system kernel NFS
driver.
Answer: A,E

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Explanation:
Direct NFS provides faster performance that what can be provided by the operating system's NFS
driver as Oracle bypasses the operating system and generates exactly the requests it needs (no user
configuration or tuning required). Data is cached just once in user space, which saves memory (no
second copy in kernel space). Performance is further improved by load balancing across multiple
network interfaces (if available).

NO.8 Which data dictionary view would you query to find the name of the default permanent
tablespace of the database?
A. DICTIONARY
B. DBA_TABLESPACES
C. DBA_DIRECTORIES
D. DBA_STORED_SETTINGS
E. DATABASE_PROPERTIES
F. DBA_TABLESPACE_GROUPS
Answer: E

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-883
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (MySQL 5.6 Database Administrator)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-590
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle VM 3 for x86 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 82 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-497
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 What three artifacts are created as a result of running the JeOS tool?
A. a System.img file representing the operating system
B. optional image files as specified in the command
C. a README file with product name, version number and build timestamp
D. a vm.cfg file pointing to the created images, along with specified memory and CPU information
E. a tar.gz file with all of the images, README and vm.cfg files compressed
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 A virtual machine is needed once per week to run reports, but the rest of the time it Is idling.
What method will unallocate resources such as CPU and memory, while keeping the virtual machine
intact and ready for rapid re-deployment?
A. Pause the virtual machine when not in use, then unpause it when needed.
B. Suspend the virtual machine when not in use, then resume it when needed.
C. Live migrate the virtual machine to a spare server when not in use, then live migrate it back when
needed.
D. Power off the virtual machine when not in use, then power it back up when needed.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What command will show the current status of all Oracle VM Agent components?
A. service ovs status
B. xm show ovs-agent
C. service ovs-agent status
D. repos.py -1
E. xm dmesg
Answer: C

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NO.4 Oracle VM Server 2.2 consists of which two software components?
A. Oracle Database XE
B. Oracle Enterprise Linux 5.3
C. Xen Hypervisor
D. Oracle Containers for Java (OC4J)
E. Oracle WebLogic Server (WLS)
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 A customer is setting up a 32-node Oracle VM server farm.
What step will best help load balance the high number of I/O requests for new virtual machines and
shared disks?
A. Increase the number of Oracle VM Manager instances.
B. Increase the number of servers with the Server Pool Master role.
C. Increase the number of servers with the Utility Server role.
D. Increase the number of servers with the Virtual Machine Server role.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which option describes the purpose of the Generic Desktop Provider?
A. It connects to a pool of virtual machines with a RDP service.
B. It connects to any virtual or any physical machine with a RDP service.
C. It connects to any physical machine regardless of operating system.
D. It connects to any virtual or any physical machine with a VNC service.
Answer: B

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Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/html/E26214_02 /generic-desktop-provider.html (Second para)

NO.7 A low priority guest is using up more of the physical network traffic than desired. Select the
two valid network QoS settings for restricting outbound network traffic?
A. [max_rate=lMb/s]
B. [rate=lMb/s@20ms]
C. [rate=250Kb/s]
D. [max_rate=unlimited]
E. [rate=250Rb/s, max rate=1Mb/s]
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 What two steps would best harden an Oracle VM Server installation?
A. Avoid installing additional software in dom0.
B. Enable firewalling in dom0.
C. Install virus checking software in dom0.
D. Use Trusted Computing Modules for Xen0.
E. Do not share physical network cards between hosts that are on a different subnet.
Answer: A,E

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-584
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Human Capital Management 11g Human Resources Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 129 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-478
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle SOA Suite 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 What Oracle Fusion Middleware features maximize the security of Fusion Applications?
A. Improved productivity, manageability, and responsibility
B. Improved extensibility, responsibility, and functionality
C. Improved productivity, adaptability, and manageability
D. Improved sustainability, adaptability, and extensibility
E. Improved adaptability, extensibility, and functionality
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are the three benefits of Oracle Fusion Applications using a Lightweight Directory Access
Protocol (LDAP) system?
A. enforces the principle of least privilege
B. segregates duties to be more rigorously enforced
C. allows principles of assured revocation to be more rigorously enforced
D. extends the database concept of a grant to applications
E. uniquely identifies a single person
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 Identify the two applicable model profiles for workforce structures.
A. Jobs
B. Individual worker
C. Position
D. Department
E. Location
F. Business unit
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Select the four products offered as part of the Oracle Fusion HCM product family under the
business process category of Workforce Development.
A. Profile Management
B. Performance & Goal Management
C. Time and Labor
D. Talent Review
E. Network at Work
F. Learning Management
Answer: A,B,D,F

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NO.5 You are working on Implementing Fusion Human Capital Management. Some of the work
structures and need to be configured manually. Enterprise, Business Units, Legal Entities, Reference
Sets, and Legislative data Group will be part of this manual setup.
Identify the correct sequence of steps to be followed for this setup.
A. Create Enterprise > Define Business Units > Define Legal Entities > Define Reference Sets >
Define Legislative Data Group.
B. Create Enterprise > Define Legal Entities > Define Business Units > Define Reference Sets >
Define Legislative Data Group.
C. Create Enterprise > Define Business Units > Define Legislative Data Group > Define Legal
Entities > Define reference Sets.
D. Create Enterprise > Define Legal Entities > Define Reference Sets > Define Business Units >
Define Legislative Data Group
Answer: B

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NO.6 Identify the four business subprocess offered under the workforce Deployment category of
the Oracle Fusion HCM family.
A. Manage Absence
B. Manage Global Workforce
C. Manage Worker Performance
D. Manage Social Networking
E. Manage Workforce Profiles
F. Manage Workforce Life Cycle
Answer: A,D,E,F

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NO.7 You want to display a new field of sensitive data to display salary information. Which security
policy controls access to the field displayed by the component?
A. Function Security Policy
B. ADF Security expression language
C. Data Security Polity
D. Oracle Platform Security Policy
Answer: C

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NO.8 As a line manager you have 10 direct reports. You have certain work scheduled that needs to
be
completed in the coming week. You have identified three of your reports to complete the task and
you would like to check for their availability in the coming week.
Which report will give you a snapshot of their availability?
A. My Organization
B. Leave Availability
C. Worker Availability
D. Predicted Worker Performance and Attrition
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-474
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Taleo Recruiting Cloud Service 2012 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 76 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-034
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Upgrade Oracle9i/10g OCA to Oracle Database 11g OCP)
Questions et réponses: 148 Q&As

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NO.1 As opposed to a general profile, which two elements are visible only on a job submission in
the candidate file?
A. Prescreening Questions
B. Attachment tab
C. Disqualification Questions
D. Referrals tab
E. History tab
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 What processes can be assigned unique candidate files?
A. Viewing and editing general profiles
B. Creating candidate profiles
C. Viewing and editing job submissions
D. Segmentation of candidate capture types
E. Modifying field-level security
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The candidate file identifier is used to specify which candidate-specific information is presented in
the Candidate column of candidates lists.

NO.3 Identify two configurations that must be selected in the user type to allow hiring managers
access to only their requisitions.
A. View Requisitions -> Only if this user is an owner of the requisitions or a collaborator
B. View Requisitions -> Only if this user is an owner of the requisition, a collaborator or if the
requisitions are associated with coverage area
C. Access "Requisitions- Section
D. View Requisitions -> Without Restriction
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 Your client would like to leverage the ACE prescreening to allow the system to automatically
sort and rank candidates who are applying to high volume positions. What type of question will you
want to avoid creating when setting up ACE prescreening for these high volume jobs?
A. Multiple Answers
B. Single Answers
C. Open Text
D. Competencies
E. Disqualification
Answer: D

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NO.5 What two elements does the Configuration profile control within the Recruiting Center?
A. Search Widget
B. Core Navigation Bar
C. Coverage Areas
D. User Types
Answer: A,D

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Explanation:
D: A center stage is selected for each configuration profile and a configuration profile is tied to each
user.
A: Users can save a search query if the feature is activated in the user's configuration profile and if
the user type permission has been granted. The fields that can be selected in the Recruiting Center
to customize a search query are set by the system administrator for each configuration profile. If a
user is not linked to a configuration profile or is linked to a configuration profile for which the
system administrator has not selected additional fields, then only the set of default fields are
displayed when customizing a search query in the Recruiting Center.

NO.6 When building a Career Section, in order to preview it, which area within the Career
Section would you access?
A. Application Flow Properties
B. Career Section URL
C. Career Section Properties
D. Career Portal Pages
E. Career Section Preview
Answer: E

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Explanation:
Viewing Candidates Matching a Requisition Prerequisite A user type permission grants users access
to this feature. The requisition must be posted on a career section. Steps
1.In the requisition file, select the Posting and Sourcing tab.
2.In the Career Sections section, click Preview Matching Candidates. Result The Posting Requisitions
- Filter Matching Candidates window displays candidates matching the requisition.

NO.7 Your client would like ensure that candidates have the ability to search for jobs in a variety of
ways. They would also like to provide visibility into jobs that candidates are a match for based on
data that has been collected by the system. How would you ensure that this functionality is
available?
A. Activate the Setting Display Personal Jobs List on the Career Portal Page Settings.
B. Activate the Setting Display Personal jobs List on the Career Section Properties.
C. Activate My Jobs Page on the Career Section Portal Page settings.
D. Activate My Jobs Page on the Personal Jobs List on the Career Section Properties.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
* If the candidate's submission has expired and the requisition is still posted, the Modify link is
replaced with the Reapply link on the candidate's My Jobs page.
* candidates are entering their profile inthecareer section.

NO.8 When configuring a CSW, why is it important to designate a completion status within a step?
A. The Completion Status will allow the candidate to progress to the next step in the CSW.
B. The Completion Status will terminate the candidate selection process.
C. The Completion Status will require that all mandatory actions be completed before a hire can be
completed.
D. The Completion Status indicates that a candidate can move from one step to another even if
some activities are not completed in the step.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Actions available in the Next Action column are Candidate Selection Workflow (CSW) movements
only,either a
Move to the next step in the CSW
Change to the completion status within the current step If the current status is not a completion
status, the action displayed will be a move (change status) tothe first completion status of the
current step. If the current status is a completion status, then the action will be a move to the next
step at the initialstatus. In a one-step CSW (reference workflow), only statuses configured as a
"completion status" willshow up as next steps.

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-478
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle SOA Suite 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-100
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Linux 5 and 6 System Administration)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

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NO.1 Examine these statements and their output taken right after successful install of Oracle Linux:
[root@FAROUT /] rpm -q firstboot
Firstboot -1.110.10-1.0.2.e16.x86_64
[root @FAROUT /] # chkconfig - - list firstboot
Firstboot 0:off 2:off 3:off 4:off 5:off 6;off
[root@FAROUT /] # /etc/sysconfig/firstboot
RUN_FIRSTBOOT=NO
What is the conclusion?
A. The option to run firstboot was deselected during Oracle Linux installation.
B. The system was installed with desktop graphical packages and rebooted and the firstboot utility
ran successful.
C. Firstboot never ran in any run level because the service is turned off for all run levels.
D. The system was installed without selecting desktop graphical packages, thereby disabling
firstboot from running.
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1z0-100   certification 1z0-100
Explanation:
Firstboot is set to off for all levels.
Example:
The rm command below remove or delate the firstboot file in order to make sure the firstboot
program running when we restart or reboot the Fedora machine.
[root@fedora ~]# rm /etc/sysconfig/firstboot
rm: remove regular file `/etc/sysconfig/firstboot'? y
[root@fedora ~]#
Then check and make sure that firstboot program or firstboot service is run when your Fedora
startup/boot up.
Check firstboot services
[root@fedora ~]# chkconfig --list firstboot
firstboot 0:off 1:off 2:off 3:off 4:off 5:off 6:off
[root@fedora ~]#

NO.2 Examine this output:
# df -t nfs
FilesystemSizeUsedAvailUse%Mounted on
o16:export30G21G7.6G74%/mnt
# 1s -1 /mnt/nfs.sh
-rwxr-mr-x. 1 root root 22 May 8 16:37 /mnt/nfs.sh
# file /mnt/nfs.sh
/mnt/nfs.sh: Bourne-Again shell script text executables
# /mnt/nfs.sh
bash: /mnt/nfs.sh: Permission denied What is the reason for the error?
A. The file system was exported on host o16 using the ROOT_SQUASH option.
B. The /export filesystem was mounted with the NOEXEC option on host o16.
C. The filesystem mounted on /mnt was mounted with the NOEXEC option.
D. The filesystem was exported on host o16 by using the NO_ROOT_SQUASH option.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which four statements are true about software on the Oracle Public YUM server?
A. It contains Oracle Linux installation ISO images.
B. It contains Oracle Linux binary RPM packages.
C. It contains Oracle Linux errata packages.
D. It contains Oracle Linux source RPM packages.
E. It contains beta Oracle Linux software packages.
F. It does not contain Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel packages.
Answer: B,C,D,F

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Explanation:
The Oracle public yum server offers a free and convenient way to install the latest Oracle Linux
packages as well as packages from the Oracle VM installation media via a yum client.
Oracle provides all errata and updates for Oracle Linux via the Public Yum service, which includes
updates to the base distribution, but does not include Oracle-specific software.
F: By default, all new installations of Oracle Linux 6 Update 5 are automatically configured to use the
public yum update service. If you subsequently register the system with ULN, the public yum service
is automatically disabled.

NO.4 This MDADM output:
Which two aspects can be determined from this output?
A. A device failed and has been removed from this RAID set.
B. It is no longer possible to write to this RAID set.
C. Read and write performance is no longer optimal on this RAID set.
D. This RAID set was built without a spare device.
E. Only Write performance is no longer optimal on this RAID set.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which two software packages are prerequisites for enabling the configuration and use of a
Network information Service (Nis) client?
A. nis-tools
B. slapi-nis
C. ypbind
D. nisserv
E. nisbind
F. yp-tools
Answer: C,E

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Explanation:
C: ypbind finds the server for NIS domains and maintains the NIS binding information. The client
(normaly the NIS routines in the standard C library) could get the information over RPC from ypbind
or read the binding files.
E: Setting up a NIS master server:
Required packages: yp-tools ypbind ypserv portmap

NO.6 Which statements is true concerning Oracle Linux configuration files for users and groups?
A. The /etc/passwd file contains hashed passwords for each user.
B. The /etc/shadow file contains hashed passwords for each user.
C. The GECOS field in /etc/passwd file may be empty.
D. The /etc/group file contains the group name and the hashed group password.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
/etc/shadow file stores actual password in encrypted (one-way hashed) format for user's account
with additional properties related to user password i.e. it stores secure user account information

NO.7 Which three settings can be controlled by using the chage breemar command as the root user,
to modify the parameters in the /etc/shadow file?
A. The expiration date of the breemar account
B. The number of days after the breemar account is locked, that it becomes expired
C. The maximum number of days that must elapse between password changes by the user breemar
before the password becomes invalid
D. The number of days after the breemar account is locked, that it becomes unlocked
E. The minimum number of days that must elapse between password changes by the user breemar
F. The maximum number of failed login attempts on the breemar account before the account is
locked
Answer: A,C,E

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Explanation:
A: chage -E, --expiredate EXPIRE_DATE
Set the date or number of days since January 1, 1970 on which the
user's account will no longer be accessible.
CE: You need to use chage command to setup password aging.
The chage command changes the number of days between password changes
and the date of the last password change. This information is used by the system to determine
when a user must change his/her password.

NO.8 What is the main advantage of the Oracle Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel compared with the
Red Hat compatible kernel?
A. It is more secure and, therefore, more difficult to hack.
B. It has a lower Mean Time Between Failures.
C. It provides higher availability for applications by reducing Mean Time to Recovery.
D. It scales better for more CPUS, memory, and Infiniband network connections.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel, for those who want to leverage the latest
features from
mainline Linux and boost performance and scalability.
The Red Hat Compatible Kernel, for those who prefer strict Red Hat kernel ABI (kABI)
compatibility.

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle GoldenGate 11g Certified Implementation Exam Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 79 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z1-061
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c: SQL Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 In your database, you want to ensure that idle sessions that are blocking active are
automatically terminated after a specified period of time.
How would you accomplish this?
A. Setting a metric threshold
B. Implementing Database Resource Manager
C. Enabling resumable timeout for user sessions
D. Decreasing the value of the IDLE_TIME resource limit in the default profile
Answer: D

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Explanation:
An Oracle session is sniped when you set the idle_time parameter to disconnect inactive sessions.
(It's only like sniping on ebay in that a time is set for an action to occur.)
Oracle has several ways to disconnect inactive or idle sessions, both from within SQL*Plus via
resources profiles (connect_time, idle_time), and with the SQL*net expire time parameter. Here are
two ways to disconnect an idle session:
Set the idle_time parameter in the user profile Set the sqlnet.ora parameter expire_time

NO.2 Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains a pluggable database, HR_PDB. The
default permanent tablespace in HR_PDB is USERDATA. The container database (CDB) is open and
you connect RMAN.
You want to issue the following RMAN command:
RMAN > BACKUP TABLESPACE hr_pdb:userdata; Which task should you perform before issuing the
command?
A. Place the root container in ARHCHIVELOG mode.
B. Take the user data tablespace offline.
C. Place the root container in the nomount stage.
D. Ensure that HR_PDB is open.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You database is running an ARCHIVELOG mode.
The following parameter are set in your database instance:
LOG_ARCHIVE_FORMAT = arch+%t_%r.arc
LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 = 'LOCATION = /disk1 /archive'
DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE = 50G
DB_RECOVERY_FILE = '/u01 /oradata'
Which statement is true about the archived redo log files?
A. They are created only in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter.
B. They are created only in the Fast Recovery Area.
C. They are created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and in the
default location $ORACLE_HOME/dbs/arch.
D. They are created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and the
location specified by the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST parameter.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
You can choose to archive redo logs to a single destination or to multiple destinations. Destinations
can be local-within the local file system or an Oracle Automatic Storage Management (Oracle ASM)
disk group-or remote (on a standby database). When you archive to multiple destinations, a copy of
each filled redo log file is written to each destination. These redundant copies help ensure that
archived logs are always available in the event of a failure at one of the destinations. To archive to
only a single destination, specify that destination using the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST and
LOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DEST initialization parameters. ARCHIVE_DEST initialization parameter. To
archive to multiple destinations, you can choose to archive to two or more locations using the
LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n initialization parameters, or to archive only to a primary and secondary
destination using the LOG_ ARCHIVE_DEST and LOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DEST initialization
parameters.

NO.4 You notice a high number of waits for the db file scattered read and db file sequential read
events in the recent Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report. After further
investigation, you find that queries are performing too many full table scans and indexes are not
being used even though the filter columns are indexed.
Identify three possible reasons for this.
A. Missing or stale histogram statistics
B. Undersized shared pool
C. High clustering factor for the indexes
D. High value for the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT parameter
E. Oversized buffer cache
Answer: A,C,D

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Explanation:
D: DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT is one of the parameters you can use to minimize I/O
during table scans. It specifies the maximum number of blocks read in one I/O operation during a
sequential scan. The total number of I/Os needed to perform a full table scan depends on such
factors as the size of the table, the multiblock read count, and whether parallel execution is being
utilized for the operation.

NO.5 The trace files be aggregated by using the tkprof utility.
Identify the correct outcome and the step to aggregate by using tkprof utility?
A. 1
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 5
D. 3 and 4
E. 3 and 5
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Tracing information is present in multiple trace files and you must use the trcsess
tool to collect it into a single file.
Incorrect:
Not 1: Parameter service_name
Name of the service for which tracing is enabled.
module_name
Name of the MODULE. An optional additional qualifier for the service.
Note:
*The procedure enables a trace for a given combination of Service, MODULE and ACTION name. The
specification is strictly hierarchical: Service Name or Service Name/MODULE, or Service Name,
MODULE, and ACTION name must be specified. Omitting a qualifier behaves like a wildcard, so that
not specifying an ACTION means all ACTIONs. Using the ALL_ACTIONS constant achieves the same
purpose.
*SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE Procedure
This procedure will enable SQL tracing for a given combination of Service Name, MODULE and
ACTION globally unless an instance_name is specified.
*DBMS_MONITOR.SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE(
service_name IN VARCHAR2,
module_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT ANY_MODULE,
action_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT ANY_ACTION,
waits IN BOOLEAN DEFAULT TRUE,
binds IN BOOLEAN DEFAULT FALSE,
instance_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL);
4. In a recent Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report for your database, you notice a high
number of buffer busy waits. The database consists of locally managed tablespaces with free list
managed segments.
On further investigation, you find that buffer busy waits is caused by contention on data blocks.
Which option would you consider first to decrease the wait event immediately?
A. Decreasing PCTUSED
B. Decreasing PCTFREE
C. Increasing the number of DBWN process
D. Using Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM)
E. Increasing db_buffer_cache based on the V$DB_CACHE_ADVICE recommendation
Answer: D

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Explanation:
* Automatic segment space management (ASSM) is a simpler and more efficient way of managing
space within a segment. It completely eliminates any need to specify and tune the pctused,freelists,
and freelist groups storage parameters for schema objects created in the tablespace. If any of these
attributes are specified, they are ignored.
*Oracle introduced Automatic Segment Storage Management (ASSM) as a replacement for
traditional freelists management which used one-way linked-lists to manage free blocks with tables
and indexes. ASSM is commonly called "bitmap freelists" because that is how Oracle implement the
internal data structures for free block management.
Note:
*Buffer busy waits are most commonly associated with segment header contention onside the data
buffer pool (db_cache_size, etc.).
*The most common remedies for high buffer busy waits include database writer (DBWR) contention
tuning, adding freelists (or ASSM), and adding missing indexes.
5. You executed this command to create a password file:
$ orapwd file = orapworcl entries = 10 ignorecase = N
Which two statements are true about the password file?
A. It will permit the use of uppercase passwords for database users who have been granted the
SYSOPER role.
B. It contains username and passwords of database users who are members of the OSOPER
operating system group.
C. It contains usernames and passwords of database users who are members of the OSDBA
operating system group.
D. It will permit the use of lowercase passwords for database users who have granted the SYSDBA
role.
E. It will not permit the use of mixed case passwords for the database users who have been granted
the SYSDBA role.
Answer: A,D

certification Oracle   certification 1Z0-060   1Z0-060
Explanation:
* You can create a password file using the password file creation utility, ORAPWD.
* Adding Users to a Password File
When you grant SYSDBA or SYSOPER privileges to a user, that user's name and privilege information
are added to the password file. If the server does not have an EXCLUSIVE password file (that is, if the
initialization parameter REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE is NONE or SHARED, or the password file is
missing), Oracle Database issues an error if you attempt to grant these privileges.
A user's name remains in the password file only as long as that user has at least one of these two
privileges. If you revoke both of these privileges, Oracle Database removes the user from the
password file.
*The syntax of the ORAPWD command is as follows:
ORAPWD FILE=filename [ENTRIES=numusers] [FORCE={Y|N}] [IGNORECASE={Y|N}]
[NOSYSDBA={Y|N}]
*IGNORECASE If this argument is set to y, passwords are case-insensitive. That is, case is ignored
when comparing the password that the user supplies during login with the password in the
password file.

NO.6 The trace files may be aggregated by using the trcess utility.

NO.7 Your database has the SRV1 service configured for an application that runs on middle-tier
application server. The application has multiple modules. You enable tracing at the service level by
executing the following command:
SQL > exec DBMS_MONITOR.SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE ('SRV1');
The possible outcome and actions to aggregate the trace files are as follows:
1.The command fails because a module name is not specified.
2.A trace file is created for each session that is running the SRV1 service.
3.An aggregated trace file is created for all the sessions that are running the SRV1 service.

NO.8 Identify two situations in which the alert log file is updated.
A. Running a query on a table returns ORA-600: Internal Error.
B. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-01722: invalid number.
C. Creating a table returns ORA-00955: name us already in used by an existing objects.
D. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-00001: unique constraint (SYS.OK_TECHP) violated.
E. Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX . . . REBUILD fails with an ORA-01578: ORACLE data block
corrupted (file # 14, block # 50) error.
Answer: A,E

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Explanation:
The alert log is a chronological log of messages and errors, and includes the following items:
*All internal errors (ORA-600), block corruption errors (ORA-1578), and deadlock errors (ORA-60)
that occur
*Administrative operations, such as CREATE, ALTER, and DROP statements and STARTUP ,
SHUTDOWN, and ARCHIVELOG statements
*Messages and errors relating to the functions of shared server and dispatcher processes
*Errors occurring during the automatic refresh of a materialized view
*The values of all initialization parameters that had nondefault values at the time the database and
instance start
Note:
*The alert log file (also referred to as the ALERT.LOG) is a chronological log of messages and errors
written out by an Oracle Database. Typical messages found in this file is: database startup,
shutdown, log switches, space errors, etc. This file should constantly be monitored to detect
unexpected messages and corruptions.

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-482
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Data Integrator 11g Certified Implementation Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 71 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z1-497
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Exadata Database Machine Models X3-2 and X3-8 Implementation Essentials)
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NO.1 Which three background processes are mandatory in a database Instance started with a
minimally configured Initialization parameter file?
A. Process Monitor Process (PMON)
B. Flashback Data Archive process (FBDA)
C. Space Management Coordinator process (SMCO)
D. Recoverer process (RECO)
E. Listener Registration process (LREG)
F. Checkpoint process (CKPT)
Answer: A,D,F

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Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01 /server.112 /e25789/process.htm#CNCPT9840

NO.2 Which statement about Storage Snapshot Optimization is correct?
A. It enables you to use third-party technologies to take a storage snapshot of your database
without putting the database in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part
of the database.
B. It enables you to use RMAN to take a storage snapshot of your database. The database must be in
BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the database.
C. It enables you to use RMAN to take a storage snapshot of your database. The database doesn't
have to be in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the database.
D. It enables you to use third-party technologies to take a storage snapshot of your database. The
database must be in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the
database.
Answer: A

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Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01 /backup.121 /e17630/release_changes.htm#BRADV276 (new
features, third bullet)

NO.3 Your customer has two CDBs: one for Production and one for development. You are asked to
create a new development PDB (salesdev) from an existing production PDB (salesprd). Which two
options would accomplish this?
A. You copy all the PDBSSEEDdata files from the production CDB into the development CDB and
execute this on the development COB;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev ADMIN USER salesdm IDENTIFIED by password;
B. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode, and start cloning the source
database:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev FROM salesprd;
C. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
In the development CDB, you create a databaselink "PRD" that connects to the root of the source
CDB, and start cloning the source PDB:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevFROM salesprd@prd;
D. Connected as the salesprd local DBA, you create an XML using:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salespdb UNPLUG INTO ' /tmp/salesprd-xml' ;
Copy the XML file and all salesprd-related files to the target CDB and start plugging the copy into
the development CDB using:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevUSING' /tmp/salesprd.xml';
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three statements are true about System Global Area (SGA)?
A. SGA contains shared memory structures for all Oracle processes running on a single server.
B. Each server process has its own SGA.
C. SGA is allocated automatically when a database is started.
D. SGA is used to speed up queries by caching data blocks, program data, information about
database objects, and query results
E. SGA is allocated automatically when a database is mounted.
F. SGA is read and written by server and background processes.
Answer: C,D,F

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NO.5 Your customer needs server availability that provides uninterrupted access to database
services, handling any unexpected failure of one or more machines hosting the database server, due
to a hardware or software fault. Which product should your customer use?
A. Oracle Data Guard
B. Oracle Streams
C. Oracle Real Application Clusters
D. Oracle GoldenGate
Answer: C

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Reference:
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/availability/maximum-availability-wp-12c1896116.p
df (page 5, Server HA: Oracle Real Application Clusters)

NO.6 You are about to install Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition. Which statement is true?
A. You should not install the Oracle Database software into an existing Oracle home from a different
release.
B. A multitenant container database (CDB) can have several pluggable databases (PDBs) with
different character sets.
C. Oracle recommends that you back up the root. sh script after you complete the installation.
D. Cloning an Oracle home is useful if you are performing multiple Oracle Database Installations.
E. You can stop existing Oracle processes, including the listener and the database running in the
Oracle home, before the database software installation.
Answer: E

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NO.7 A DBA informs you that an Oracle instance has started. What does this imply?
A. Users can access the data in the database.
B. Only SGA has been allocated for the database.
C. Only background and user processes are running.
D. Memory areas have been allocated and background processes have been started.
Answer: D

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NO.8 In which situation would you use static database registration for a listener?
A. when multiple databases are to be registered with the listener
B. when DBAs need to connect remotely to start up the database instance
C. when users need to connect the database instance by using the host naming method
D. when the database instance to be registered with the listener is configured in shared server
mode
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-864
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Java Enterprise Edition 5 Enterprise Architect Certified Master Exam (Step 1 of 3))
Questions et réponses: 238 Q&As

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NO.1 You are integrating with a single legacy Enterprise Information System. You are interested in the
transaction management capabilities of the Java Connector Architecture. This new system needs the
capability to invoke multiple operations against this single legacy system. These operations succeed
together or fail together as a group. To which minimum level of transaction management are you going to
set your resource adapter?
A. No transaction
B. Local transaction
C. Distributed transaction
D. Container Managed transaction
Answer: B

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NO.2 An application needs to invoke a service on a remote system over a low latency connection, and then
wait for a response. Which two are best for this type of invocation? (Choose two.)
A. JMS topic
B. JMS queue
C. RMI over IIOP
D. synchronous web service
E. asynchronous web service
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 What are the three primary roles in a web service interaction? (Choose three.)
A. Broker
B. Facade
C. Provider
D. Decorator
E. Requestor
F. Interceptor
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.4 What are two capabilities of the Abstract Factory pattern? (Choose two.)
A. Creates whole-part hierarchies
B. Creates families of related objects
C. Enforces dependencies between concrete classes
D. Specifies the types of objects to create using a sample instance
E. Separates the construction of a complex object from its representation
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 What is an advantage of XML over HTTP, as compared to SOAP over HTTP, for web services?
A. Guaranteed delivery
B. More security options
C. Smaller message size
D. Strongly typed parameters
Answer: C

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NO.6 Your new architecture needs to access the business logic of an Enterprise Information Solution (EIS).
What are three benefits of using the Java Connector Architecture to connect to EIS instead of
implementing a proprietary solution? (Choose three.)
A. Security
B. Performance
C. Loose coupling
D. Connection pooling
E. Common Client Interface
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.7 An online sporting goods store's web application uses HTTPSession to store shopping carts.
When the application is initially deployed, the business plan predicts only a few customers will access the
site. Over time, the store projects a steady increase in volume. The deployment plan calls for a single web
container in the initial deployment. As demand increases, the plan calls for multiple web containers on
separate hardware with clustered HTTPSession objects. Which two principles will help the application
meet the requirements and optimize performance? (Choose two.)
A. The application should store as much as possible in HTTPSession objects.
B. The application should NOT make frequent updates to HTTPSession objects.
C. The application should make coarse-grained updates to HTTPSession objects.
D. The application should create new HTTPSession objects instead of updating existing objects.
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 A developer creates a Java web service to be used by consumers in an SOA. This SOA uses a UDDI
service registry. How can the developer make the new service available to consumers?
A. Deploy to the registry using JAXR
B. Publish to the registry using JAXR
C. Query the registry using JAX-RPC
D. Target the registry using JAX-RPC
Answer: B

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NO.9 A teenage fashion web site, includes a set of pages for displaying and browsing their catalog, as well
as pages for making fashion suggestions that also display tables of catalog entries.
Currently, the JSP code uses scriptlets that perform database SELECT statements and format the results
in HTML tables. You have been hired to help reduce the maintenance overhead when either the look is
modified or the database schema changes. Which two patterns, used together, do you apply to reduce
this maintenance overhead? (Choose two.)
A. View Helper
B. Front Controller
C. Composite View
D. Data Access Object
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 You are architecting an online ordering application with these requirements: Users access the system
over the Internet using HTML.
An email message is sent to the user confirming the order. Users must log in and are validated using
LDAP.
The product catalog is stored in a relational database.
All orders are logged to the internal fulfillment system.
Orders must not be lost.
Which Java EE technology should be used to send orders to the fulfillment system?
A. JNDI
B. JMS
C. JAX-WS
D. RMI-IIOP
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which three are parts of a SOAP message? (Choose three.)
A. SOAP body
B. SOAP endpoint
C. SOAP headers
D. SOAP handlers
E. SOAP attachments
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.12 A company has a web service that provides the most recent price for stocks, mutual funds, and
commodities. The company has the only web service that allows a person to check prices on all three
financial assets with one call. Its system does not store this information but sends individual calls to each
of the primary vendors for an asset and then aggregates the response to the requester. The company has
committed to support a non-functional requirement (NFR) for performance that states it must process all
requests within three seconds and each of the three vendors is obligated to support the NFR as dictated
by the company. Where, in the message flow, is it appropriate to measure whether all the NFRs are met?
A. when a request is received and a response is sent to the requester
B. when a request is received, first call to vendor, last response from vendors, response is sent to a
requester
C. when a requester sends a request, the request is received, each call to vendor, each
response from vendor, requester receives response
D. when a request is received, each call to vendor, each response from a vendor, a response is sent to a
requester
Answer: D

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NO.13 What are two benefits of using the Value List Handler pattern? (Choose two.)
A. Improves network performance
B. Facilitates exposing existing services
C. Provides an alternative to potentially inefficient EJB finders
D. Facilitates post-processing across heterogeneous requests
E. Provides a mechanism to support shared elements of composite views
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 With the release of a new product line, there has been a significant increase in the volume of
transactions on your web site. You need to scale your application and manage session failover. What is
the best option for scalability?
A. Add additional web servers and application servers
B. Introduce a High Availability pair and utilize sticky sessions
C. Add additional application servers and implement DNS round robin
D. Add additional application servers and use clustered HttpSession
Answer: D

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NO.15 You are asked to architect an SOA solution that leverages Java web services. The architecture needs to
be flexible and allow for the SOAP 1.1, SOAP 1.2, and REST implementations. Which Java EE
technology should you use?
A. JAXP
B. JAXB
C. JAX-WS
D. JAX-RPC
Answer: C

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NO.16 Your web application requires access to several different services, so you created a Service Locator
class to be used by the UI developers on the team. New services with different interfaces are occasionally
added. Unfortunately, the caching benefits of the Service Locator class are NOT being realized because a
new instance of this class is being created in every backing bean method that requires a service. Which
pattern should you apply to eliminate this problem?
A. Bridge
B. Singleton
C. Prototype
D. Factory Method
E. Business Delegate
Answer: B

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NO.17 A Java web component, EJB component, or another web service can be a client to a web service.
Which Java API can the client use to access the web service through a Service Endpoint Interface?
A. JAXB
B. JAXR
C. JDBC
D. JAX-WS
Answer: D

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NO.18 A stock trading company is writing a new application for stock market forecasting. A significant portion of
the work required by the business logic involves navigating through the persistent object model. As lead
architect on this project, you have chosen JPA over EJB2 entity beans to implement these persistent
objects. You have done this to maximize performance when navigating through the model. Why does JPA
offer better performance for this task.?
A. JPA guarantees referential integrity at the object level.
B. JPA allows the application to specify lazy or eager retrievals.
C. JPA simplifies the source code that implements the object model.
D. The guaranteed referential integrity in EJB2 entity beans is expensive.
Answer: B

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NO.19 A new security feature has been requested for an existing web application with the following
requirements:
All requests must be logged to a secure database.
Each request must be time-stamped with the start and completion times.
Each request must contain the IP address of the client that made the request. Which pattern is most
applicable for this new feature?
A. Strategy
B. Front Controller
C. Abstract Factory
D. Intercepting Filter
E. Model View Controller
Answer: D

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NO.20 You are writing a utility that searches for existing web services provided by large companies through
UDDI. Your web site allows the user to input search criteria using event-driven, state managed GUI
screens, performs the search, and displays them in a formatted HTML page. Which technologies would
you use for this application?
A. JSP and JAXB
B. JSF and JAXR
C. JSF and JAX-WS
D. JSP and JAX-WS
Answer: B

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