2014年7月31日星期四

Les meilleures VMware VCP-550 VCAD510 VCAW510 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: VCP-550
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on vSphere 5 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 267 Q&As

Code d'Examen: VCAD510
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Associate - Data Center Virtualization (VCA-DCV) Exam)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

Code d'Examen: VCAW510
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Associate - Workforce Mobility (VCAWM))
Questions et réponses: 93 Q&As

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NO.1 You have a VMware environment and you have noticed that the storage capacity of your
datastores varies widely. You would like to maximize the storage environment by balancing the
space utilization across each of the datastores. Which of the following is a viable solution?
A. Storage I/O Control
B. vSphere APIs for Array Integration (VAAI)
C. vSphere APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. Storage Distributed Resource Scheduler (SDRS)
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/vmw-vsphr-5-1-stor-drs-uslet-101-web.pdf(page 5,
first para)

NO.2 You are a consultant and your newest client is concerned about the visibility of performance
and capacity related information to help them manage their new VMware environment more
efficiently. Which of the following will enable them to be proactive in their monitoring?
A. Scheduled PowerShell scripts to gather performance data
B. vCenter Operations Manager (vC OPS)
C. vCenter advanced performance charts
D. vCenter Site Recovery Manager
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.epubbud.com/read.php?g=8MVD69ZN&tocp=25

NO.3 What is a scalability challenge that vSphere can address?
A. Change management processes are simplified
B. Automatic balancing of virtual machines after adding new physical servers
C. Easier disaster recovery processes
D. Users have self-service provisioning of virtual machine workloads
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/techpaper/Whats-New-VMware-vSphere-51-Platform
-Technical-Whitepaper.pdf(page 12)

NO.4 Which vSphere feature allows for more efficient storage usage?
A. Snapshots
B. Fast Provisioning
C. Thin Provisioning
D. Storage vMotion
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/Storage-with-VMware-vSphere.pdf

NO.5 You work in a highly regulated, secure environment. You have been tasked with finding a
solution that will analyze the environment and report on any changes in the environment to ensure
you meet the compliance requirements in your industry. Which VMware product can help to
provide this solution?
A. vCenter Operations Manager
B. vCenter Change Management
C. vCenter Configuration Manager
D. vCloud Director
Answer: C

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Reference:
ehttp://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/VMware_vCenter_Configuration_Manager_Datasheet__Englis
h .pdf

NO.6 You have a vSphere cluster managed by vCenter. One of the VMs is running a critical
application that is very sensitive to unplanned or sudden reboots. You wish to protect this VM from
potential data loss. Which of the following features will help you?
A. vSphere Replication
B. Fault Tolerance (FT)
C. High Availability (HA)
D. vMotion
Answer: B

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Reference:http://en.community.dell.com/techcenter/virtualization/w/wiki/vmware-vsphere-fault
tolerance.aspx

NO.7 You are the VMware administrator for your local hospital. A fellow administrator has asked
what role a datastore plays in the environment. Which of the following is a good definition of a
datastore?
A. A datastore is used by the hypervisor to swap local memory content if needed
B. A datastore is used as the destination for the core dump file
C. A datastore is used by the hypervisor to store logs and performance data
D. A datastore is where virtual machine's files are stored
Answer: D

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NO.8 You work for a convenience store chain that has a full data center including shared storage and
many small stores. You want to make sure that data in the stores gets copied to the main data center.
Which solution will meet these requirements?
A. Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS)
B. Storage DRS
C. vSphere Replication (VR)
D. VSA
Answer: C

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Reference:http://searchvirtualstorage.techtarget.com/definition/vSphere-Replication

Certification Oracle de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen 1Z0-478 1z0-100, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-478
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle SOA Suite 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-100
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Linux 5 and 6 System Administration)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

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NO.1 Examine these statements and their output taken right after successful install of Oracle Linux:
[root@FAROUT /] rpm -q firstboot
Firstboot -1.110.10-1.0.2.e16.x86_64
[root @FAROUT /] # chkconfig - - list firstboot
Firstboot 0:off 2:off 3:off 4:off 5:off 6;off
[root@FAROUT /] # /etc/sysconfig/firstboot
RUN_FIRSTBOOT=NO
What is the conclusion?
A. The option to run firstboot was deselected during Oracle Linux installation.
B. The system was installed with desktop graphical packages and rebooted and the firstboot utility
ran successful.
C. Firstboot never ran in any run level because the service is turned off for all run levels.
D. The system was installed without selecting desktop graphical packages, thereby disabling
firstboot from running.
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1z0-100   certification 1z0-100
Explanation:
Firstboot is set to off for all levels.
Example:
The rm command below remove or delate the firstboot file in order to make sure the firstboot
program running when we restart or reboot the Fedora machine.
[root@fedora ~]# rm /etc/sysconfig/firstboot
rm: remove regular file `/etc/sysconfig/firstboot'? y
[root@fedora ~]#
Then check and make sure that firstboot program or firstboot service is run when your Fedora
startup/boot up.
Check firstboot services
[root@fedora ~]# chkconfig --list firstboot
firstboot 0:off 1:off 2:off 3:off 4:off 5:off 6:off
[root@fedora ~]#

NO.2 Examine this output:
# df -t nfs
FilesystemSizeUsedAvailUse%Mounted on
o16:export30G21G7.6G74%/mnt
# 1s -1 /mnt/nfs.sh
-rwxr-mr-x. 1 root root 22 May 8 16:37 /mnt/nfs.sh
# file /mnt/nfs.sh
/mnt/nfs.sh: Bourne-Again shell script text executables
# /mnt/nfs.sh
bash: /mnt/nfs.sh: Permission denied What is the reason for the error?
A. The file system was exported on host o16 using the ROOT_SQUASH option.
B. The /export filesystem was mounted with the NOEXEC option on host o16.
C. The filesystem mounted on /mnt was mounted with the NOEXEC option.
D. The filesystem was exported on host o16 by using the NO_ROOT_SQUASH option.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which four statements are true about software on the Oracle Public YUM server?
A. It contains Oracle Linux installation ISO images.
B. It contains Oracle Linux binary RPM packages.
C. It contains Oracle Linux errata packages.
D. It contains Oracle Linux source RPM packages.
E. It contains beta Oracle Linux software packages.
F. It does not contain Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel packages.
Answer: B,C,D,F

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Explanation:
The Oracle public yum server offers a free and convenient way to install the latest Oracle Linux
packages as well as packages from the Oracle VM installation media via a yum client.
Oracle provides all errata and updates for Oracle Linux via the Public Yum service, which includes
updates to the base distribution, but does not include Oracle-specific software.
F: By default, all new installations of Oracle Linux 6 Update 5 are automatically configured to use the
public yum update service. If you subsequently register the system with ULN, the public yum service
is automatically disabled.

NO.4 This MDADM output:
Which two aspects can be determined from this output?
A. A device failed and has been removed from this RAID set.
B. It is no longer possible to write to this RAID set.
C. Read and write performance is no longer optimal on this RAID set.
D. This RAID set was built without a spare device.
E. Only Write performance is no longer optimal on this RAID set.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which two software packages are prerequisites for enabling the configuration and use of a
Network information Service (Nis) client?
A. nis-tools
B. slapi-nis
C. ypbind
D. nisserv
E. nisbind
F. yp-tools
Answer: C,E

Oracle   1z0-100   1z0-100 examen   certification 1z0-100   certification 1z0-100
Explanation:
C: ypbind finds the server for NIS domains and maintains the NIS binding information. The client
(normaly the NIS routines in the standard C library) could get the information over RPC from ypbind
or read the binding files.
E: Setting up a NIS master server:
Required packages: yp-tools ypbind ypserv portmap

NO.6 Which statements is true concerning Oracle Linux configuration files for users and groups?
A. The /etc/passwd file contains hashed passwords for each user.
B. The /etc/shadow file contains hashed passwords for each user.
C. The GECOS field in /etc/passwd file may be empty.
D. The /etc/group file contains the group name and the hashed group password.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
/etc/shadow file stores actual password in encrypted (one-way hashed) format for user's account
with additional properties related to user password i.e. it stores secure user account information

NO.7 Which three settings can be controlled by using the chage breemar command as the root user,
to modify the parameters in the /etc/shadow file?
A. The expiration date of the breemar account
B. The number of days after the breemar account is locked, that it becomes expired
C. The maximum number of days that must elapse between password changes by the user breemar
before the password becomes invalid
D. The number of days after the breemar account is locked, that it becomes unlocked
E. The minimum number of days that must elapse between password changes by the user breemar
F. The maximum number of failed login attempts on the breemar account before the account is
locked
Answer: A,C,E

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Explanation:
A: chage -E, --expiredate EXPIRE_DATE
Set the date or number of days since January 1, 1970 on which the
user's account will no longer be accessible.
CE: You need to use chage command to setup password aging.
The chage command changes the number of days between password changes
and the date of the last password change. This information is used by the system to determine
when a user must change his/her password.

NO.8 What is the main advantage of the Oracle Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel compared with the
Red Hat compatible kernel?
A. It is more secure and, therefore, more difficult to hack.
B. It has a lower Mean Time Between Failures.
C. It provides higher availability for applications by reducing Mean Time to Recovery.
D. It scales better for more CPUS, memory, and Infiniband network connections.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel, for those who want to leverage the latest
features from
mainline Linux and boost performance and scalability.
The Red Hat Compatible Kernel, for those who prefer strict Red Hat kernel ABI (kABI)
compatibility.

L'avènement de la certification Oracle pratique d'examen 1z0-481 1z1-061 1Z0-060 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-481
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle GoldenGate 11g Certified Implementation Exam Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 79 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z1-061
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c: SQL Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-060
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 In your database, you want to ensure that idle sessions that are blocking active are
automatically terminated after a specified period of time.
How would you accomplish this?
A. Setting a metric threshold
B. Implementing Database Resource Manager
C. Enabling resumable timeout for user sessions
D. Decreasing the value of the IDLE_TIME resource limit in the default profile
Answer: D

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Explanation:
An Oracle session is sniped when you set the idle_time parameter to disconnect inactive sessions.
(It's only like sniping on ebay in that a time is set for an action to occur.)
Oracle has several ways to disconnect inactive or idle sessions, both from within SQL*Plus via
resources profiles (connect_time, idle_time), and with the SQL*net expire time parameter. Here are
two ways to disconnect an idle session:
Set the idle_time parameter in the user profile Set the sqlnet.ora parameter expire_time

NO.2 Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains a pluggable database, HR_PDB. The
default permanent tablespace in HR_PDB is USERDATA. The container database (CDB) is open and
you connect RMAN.
You want to issue the following RMAN command:
RMAN > BACKUP TABLESPACE hr_pdb:userdata; Which task should you perform before issuing the
command?
A. Place the root container in ARHCHIVELOG mode.
B. Take the user data tablespace offline.
C. Place the root container in the nomount stage.
D. Ensure that HR_PDB is open.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You database is running an ARCHIVELOG mode.
The following parameter are set in your database instance:
LOG_ARCHIVE_FORMAT = arch+%t_%r.arc
LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 = 'LOCATION = /disk1 /archive'
DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE = 50G
DB_RECOVERY_FILE = '/u01 /oradata'
Which statement is true about the archived redo log files?
A. They are created only in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter.
B. They are created only in the Fast Recovery Area.
C. They are created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and in the
default location $ORACLE_HOME/dbs/arch.
D. They are created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and the
location specified by the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST parameter.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
You can choose to archive redo logs to a single destination or to multiple destinations. Destinations
can be local-within the local file system or an Oracle Automatic Storage Management (Oracle ASM)
disk group-or remote (on a standby database). When you archive to multiple destinations, a copy of
each filled redo log file is written to each destination. These redundant copies help ensure that
archived logs are always available in the event of a failure at one of the destinations. To archive to
only a single destination, specify that destination using the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST and
LOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DEST initialization parameters. ARCHIVE_DEST initialization parameter. To
archive to multiple destinations, you can choose to archive to two or more locations using the
LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n initialization parameters, or to archive only to a primary and secondary
destination using the LOG_ ARCHIVE_DEST and LOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DEST initialization
parameters.

NO.4 You notice a high number of waits for the db file scattered read and db file sequential read
events in the recent Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report. After further
investigation, you find that queries are performing too many full table scans and indexes are not
being used even though the filter columns are indexed.
Identify three possible reasons for this.
A. Missing or stale histogram statistics
B. Undersized shared pool
C. High clustering factor for the indexes
D. High value for the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT parameter
E. Oversized buffer cache
Answer: A,C,D

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Explanation:
D: DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT is one of the parameters you can use to minimize I/O
during table scans. It specifies the maximum number of blocks read in one I/O operation during a
sequential scan. The total number of I/Os needed to perform a full table scan depends on such
factors as the size of the table, the multiblock read count, and whether parallel execution is being
utilized for the operation.

NO.5 The trace files be aggregated by using the tkprof utility.
Identify the correct outcome and the step to aggregate by using tkprof utility?
A. 1
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 5
D. 3 and 4
E. 3 and 5
Answer: B

Oracle   certification 1Z0-060   certification 1Z0-060
Explanation:
Tracing information is present in multiple trace files and you must use the trcsess
tool to collect it into a single file.
Incorrect:
Not 1: Parameter service_name
Name of the service for which tracing is enabled.
module_name
Name of the MODULE. An optional additional qualifier for the service.
Note:
*The procedure enables a trace for a given combination of Service, MODULE and ACTION name. The
specification is strictly hierarchical: Service Name or Service Name/MODULE, or Service Name,
MODULE, and ACTION name must be specified. Omitting a qualifier behaves like a wildcard, so that
not specifying an ACTION means all ACTIONs. Using the ALL_ACTIONS constant achieves the same
purpose.
*SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE Procedure
This procedure will enable SQL tracing for a given combination of Service Name, MODULE and
ACTION globally unless an instance_name is specified.
*DBMS_MONITOR.SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE(
service_name IN VARCHAR2,
module_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT ANY_MODULE,
action_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT ANY_ACTION,
waits IN BOOLEAN DEFAULT TRUE,
binds IN BOOLEAN DEFAULT FALSE,
instance_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL);
4. In a recent Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report for your database, you notice a high
number of buffer busy waits. The database consists of locally managed tablespaces with free list
managed segments.
On further investigation, you find that buffer busy waits is caused by contention on data blocks.
Which option would you consider first to decrease the wait event immediately?
A. Decreasing PCTUSED
B. Decreasing PCTFREE
C. Increasing the number of DBWN process
D. Using Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM)
E. Increasing db_buffer_cache based on the V$DB_CACHE_ADVICE recommendation
Answer: D

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Explanation:
* Automatic segment space management (ASSM) is a simpler and more efficient way of managing
space within a segment. It completely eliminates any need to specify and tune the pctused,freelists,
and freelist groups storage parameters for schema objects created in the tablespace. If any of these
attributes are specified, they are ignored.
*Oracle introduced Automatic Segment Storage Management (ASSM) as a replacement for
traditional freelists management which used one-way linked-lists to manage free blocks with tables
and indexes. ASSM is commonly called "bitmap freelists" because that is how Oracle implement the
internal data structures for free block management.
Note:
*Buffer busy waits are most commonly associated with segment header contention onside the data
buffer pool (db_cache_size, etc.).
*The most common remedies for high buffer busy waits include database writer (DBWR) contention
tuning, adding freelists (or ASSM), and adding missing indexes.
5. You executed this command to create a password file:
$ orapwd file = orapworcl entries = 10 ignorecase = N
Which two statements are true about the password file?
A. It will permit the use of uppercase passwords for database users who have been granted the
SYSOPER role.
B. It contains username and passwords of database users who are members of the OSOPER
operating system group.
C. It contains usernames and passwords of database users who are members of the OSDBA
operating system group.
D. It will permit the use of lowercase passwords for database users who have granted the SYSDBA
role.
E. It will not permit the use of mixed case passwords for the database users who have been granted
the SYSDBA role.
Answer: A,D

certification Oracle   certification 1Z0-060   1Z0-060
Explanation:
* You can create a password file using the password file creation utility, ORAPWD.
* Adding Users to a Password File
When you grant SYSDBA or SYSOPER privileges to a user, that user's name and privilege information
are added to the password file. If the server does not have an EXCLUSIVE password file (that is, if the
initialization parameter REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE is NONE or SHARED, or the password file is
missing), Oracle Database issues an error if you attempt to grant these privileges.
A user's name remains in the password file only as long as that user has at least one of these two
privileges. If you revoke both of these privileges, Oracle Database removes the user from the
password file.
*The syntax of the ORAPWD command is as follows:
ORAPWD FILE=filename [ENTRIES=numusers] [FORCE={Y|N}] [IGNORECASE={Y|N}]
[NOSYSDBA={Y|N}]
*IGNORECASE If this argument is set to y, passwords are case-insensitive. That is, case is ignored
when comparing the password that the user supplies during login with the password in the
password file.

NO.6 The trace files may be aggregated by using the trcess utility.

NO.7 Your database has the SRV1 service configured for an application that runs on middle-tier
application server. The application has multiple modules. You enable tracing at the service level by
executing the following command:
SQL > exec DBMS_MONITOR.SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE ('SRV1');
The possible outcome and actions to aggregate the trace files are as follows:
1.The command fails because a module name is not specified.
2.A trace file is created for each session that is running the SRV1 service.
3.An aggregated trace file is created for all the sessions that are running the SRV1 service.

NO.8 Identify two situations in which the alert log file is updated.
A. Running a query on a table returns ORA-600: Internal Error.
B. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-01722: invalid number.
C. Creating a table returns ORA-00955: name us already in used by an existing objects.
D. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-00001: unique constraint (SYS.OK_TECHP) violated.
E. Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX . . . REBUILD fails with an ORA-01578: ORACLE data block
corrupted (file # 14, block # 50) error.
Answer: A,E

Oracle   1Z0-060   1Z0-060   1Z0-060   certification 1Z0-060
Explanation:
The alert log is a chronological log of messages and errors, and includes the following items:
*All internal errors (ORA-600), block corruption errors (ORA-1578), and deadlock errors (ORA-60)
that occur
*Administrative operations, such as CREATE, ALTER, and DROP statements and STARTUP ,
SHUTDOWN, and ARCHIVELOG statements
*Messages and errors relating to the functions of shared server and dispatcher processes
*Errors occurring during the automatic refresh of a materialized view
*The values of all initialization parameters that had nondefault values at the time the database and
instance start
Note:
*The alert log file (also referred to as the ALERT.LOG) is a chronological log of messages and errors
written out by an Oracle Database. Typical messages found in this file is: database startup,
shutdown, log switches, space errors, etc. This file should constantly be monitored to detect
unexpected messages and corruptions.

Microsoft 074-343 74-338 070-492 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 074-343
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Managing Projects with Microsoft Project 2013)
Questions et réponses: 101 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 74-338
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Lync 2013 Depth Support Engineer Exam)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 070-492
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Upgrade your MCPD: Web Developer 4 to MCSD: Web Applications)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 You are authoring unit tests.
The unit tests must test code that consumes sealed classes.
You need to create, maintain, and inject dependencies in the unit tests.
Which isolation method should you use?
A. T4 text templates and code generation
B. Stub types
C. Shim types
D. Hard-coded implementation
Answer: C

certification Microsoft   070-492 examen   certification 070-492

NO.2 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC application by using Visual Studio 2012.
The application throws and handles exceptions when it runs.
You need to examine the state of the application when exceptions are thrown.
What should you do?
A. From the DEBUG menu in Visual Studio 2012, select Exceptions. Enable the Thrown
check box for Common Language Runtime Exceptions.
B. From the DEBUG menu in Visual Studio 2012, select Exceptions. Disable the User-
unhandled check box for Common Language Runtime Exceptions.
C. Add the following code to the Web.config file of the application.
<customErrors mode="On">
<error statusCode="500" redirect="CustomErrors.html" />
</customErrors>
D. Add the following code to the Web.config file of the application.
<customErrors mode="On" >
<error statusCode="404" redirect="CustomErrors.html"/>
</customErrors>
Answer: A

Microsoft examen   certification 070-492   070-492

NO.3 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL
Server database. You need to maintain data integrity in all situations that use transactions.
A. ReadUncommitted
B. Repeatable
C. Serializable
D. ReadCommitted
Answer: D

Microsoft   certification 070-492   070-492

NO.4 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC application.
You need to authenticate clients by using NT LAN Manager (NTLM).
Which authentication method should you implement?
A. Basic
B. Windows
C. Forms
D. Kerberos
Answer: B

Microsoft   certification 070-492   certification 070-492   070-492 examen

NO.5 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC application. The application is deployed in a web farm
and is accessed by many users.
The application must handle web server failures gracefully. The servers in the farm must share the
state information.
You need to persist the application state during the session.
What should you implement?
A. A state server
B. Cookieless sessions
C. A web garden on the web servers
D. An InProc session
Answer: A

Microsoft   070-492 examen   070-492 examen   070-492

NO.6 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC web application in Visual Studio 2012. The application
requires several thousand content files. All content is hosted on the same IIS instance as the
application.
You detect performance issues when the application starts.
You need to resolve the performance issues.
What should you do?
A. Implement HTTP caching in the ASP .NET MVC controllers.
B. Combine the content files by using ASP .NET MVC bundling.
C. Install a second IIS instance.
D. Move the content to a Windows Azure CDN.
Answer: B

Microsoft   070-492 examen   070-492 examen

NO.7 You are testing an ASP .NET application.
The test plan requires that tests run against the application's business layer. You need to use the test
project template that meets this requirement. Which template should you use?
A. Web Test Project
B. Load Test Project
C. Unit Test Project
D. Coded Test Project
Answer: C

certification Microsoft   070-492   070-492 examen   070-492 examen

NO.8 You are designing a distributed application that runs on the Windows Azure platform.
The application must store a small amount of insecure global information that does not change
frequently.
You need to configure the application to meet the requirements.
Which server-side state management option should you use? (Each correct answer presents a
complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure application state
B. Sql Azure
C. Profile properties of the Windows Azure application
D. Windows Azure session state
Answer: B,D

Microsoft examen   070-492   070-492 examen   certification 070-492
Explanation:
SQL Database provides a relational database management system for Windows Azure and is based
on SQL Server technology. With a SQL Database instance, you can easily provision and deploy
relational database solutions to the cloud, and take advantage of a distributed data center that
provides enterprise-class availability, scalability, and security with the benefits of built-in data
protection and self-healing.
Session States in Windows Azure. If you are a Web developer, you are probably very familiar with
managing user state - that is you are familiar with tracking user activity and actions across several
request-response exchanges that occur in Web applications. Since HTTP is a stateless protocol,
developers over the years have developed all sorts of means to manage state. You'll even find an
MSDN page providing alternatives and recommendations for state management here. Cookies,
hidden fields, and query strings are some client-side options to tracking user state. When it comes
to managing that state on the server-side, most Web developers rely on session objects.

Microsoft MB6-700 70-492, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: MB6-700
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 R2 Project)
Questions et réponses: 82 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 70-492
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Upgrade your MCPD: Web Developer 4 to MCSD: Web Applications)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL
Server database. You need to maintain data integrity in all situations that use transactions.
A. ReadUncommitted
B. Repeatable
C. Serializable
D. ReadCommitted
Answer: D

certification Microsoft   70-492   certification 70-492   certification 70-492   70-492 examen

NO.2 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC application.
Deployment administrators do not have access to Visual Studio 2102, but will have the elevated
permissions required to deploy the application to the servers.
You need to select a deployment tool for use by the deployment administrators.
Which tool should you use?
A. Publish Web Site Tool
B. Web Deployment Package
C. One-Click Publish
D. Deployment Package Editor
Answer: B

certification Microsoft   certification 70-492   certification 70-492   certification 70-492   70-492 examen

NO.3 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC web application in Visual Studio 2012. The application
requires several thousand content files. All content is hosted on the same IIS instance as the
application.
You detect performance issues when the application starts.
You need to resolve the performance issues.
What should you do?
A. Implement HTTP caching in the ASP .NET MVC controllers.
B. Combine the content files by using ASP .NET MVC bundling.
C. Install a second IIS instance.
D. Move the content to a Windows Azure CDN.
Answer: B

Microsoft   70-492 examen   70-492   70-492 examen

NO.4 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC news aggregation application that will be deployed to
servers on multiple networks.
The application must be compatible with multiple browsers. A user can search the website for news
articles. You must track the page number that the user is viewing in search results.
You need to program the location for storing state information about the user's search.
What should you do?
A. Store search results and page index in Session.
B. Use Application state to store search terms and page index.
C. Use QueryString to store search terms and page index.
D. Store search results and page index in TempData
Answer: C

Microsoft   70-492 examen   certification 70-492

NO.5 DRAG DROP
You are developing an ASP .NET MVC web application in Visual Studio 2012.
The application has a model named ReservationLocation that contains properties named City and
State.
The view that displays reservations has a single text box named loc for entering the location
information. The location is entered as city, state.
There are action methods that have ReservationLocation as a parameter type. You need to ensure
that the City and State properties are correctly populated.
How should you implement model binding for the ReservationLocation type? (To answer, drag the
appropriate code segment to the correct location or locations. Each code segment may be used
once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content.)
Answer:

NO.6 You are developing a WCF service.
A new service instance must be created for each client session.
You need to choose an instancing mode.
Which instance mode should you use?
A. PerCall
B. Single
C. Multiple
D. PerSession
E. PerRequest
Answer: D

Microsoft examen   70-492   70-492 examen

NO.7 You are authoring unit tests.
The unit tests must test code that consumes sealed classes.
You need to create, maintain, and inject dependencies in the unit tests.
Which isolation method should you use?
A. T4 text templates and code generation
B. Stub types
C. Shim types
D. Hard-coded implementation
Answer: C

certification Microsoft   70-492   certification 70-492   certification 70-492   70-492

NO.8 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC application. The application is deployed in a web farm
and is accessed by many users.
The application must handle web server failures gracefully. The servers in the farm must share the
state information.
You need to persist the application state during the session.
What should you implement?
A. A state server
B. Cookieless sessions
C. A web garden on the web servers
D. An InProc session
Answer: A

Microsoft examen   70-492 examen   certification 70-492   70-492   certification 70-492

Les meilleures Juniper JN0-692 JN0-102 JN0-696 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: JN0-692
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Service Provider Routing and Switching Support, Professional)
Questions et réponses: 171 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-102
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Junos, Associate (JNCIA-Junos))
Questions et réponses: 319 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-696
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Security Support, Professional (JNCSP-SEC))
Questions et réponses: 36 Q&As

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NO.1 You are having problems establishing an IPsec tunnel between two SRX Series devices.
What are two explanations for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. proposal mismatch
B. antivirus configuration
C. preshared key mismatch
D. TCP MSS clamping is disabled
Answer: B,D

Juniper examen   JN0-696 examen   certification JN0-696

NO.2 Two SRX Series devices are having problems establishing an IPsec VPN session. One of the
devices has a firewall filter applied to its gateway interface that rejects UDP traffic.
What would resolve the problem?
A. Disable the IKE Phase 1 part of the session establishment.
B. Disable the IKE Phase 2 part of the session establishment.
C. Change the configuration so that session establishment uses TCP .
D. Edit the firewall filter to allow UDP port 500.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your SRX Series device has the following configuration:
user@host> show security policies
...
Policy: my-policy, State: enabled, Index: 5, Sequence number: 1
Source addresses: any Destination addresses: any
Applications: snmp
Action: reject
From zone: trust, To zone: untrust
...
When traffic matches my-policy, you want the device to silently drop the traffic; however, you
notice that the device is replying with ICMP unreachable messages instead.
What is causing this behavior?
A. the snmp application
B. the reject action
C. the trust zone
D. the untrust zone
Answer: C

Juniper examen   JN0-696 examen   JN0-696 examen

NO.4 You want to allow remote users using PCs running Windows 7 to access the network using an
IPsec VPN. You implement a route-based hub-and-spoke VPN; however, users report that they are
not able to access the network.
What is causing this problem?
A. The remote clients do not have proper licensing.
B. Hub-and-spoke VPNs cannot be route-based; they must be policy-based.
C. The remote clients' OS is not supported.
D. Hub-and-spoke VPNs do not support remote client access; a dynamic VPN must be implemented
instead.
Answer: B

Juniper examen   certification JN0-696   JN0-696   certification JN0-696

NO.5 Users at a branch office report that they cannot reach an internal Web server. The users
connect through a single SRX Series device to reach the Web server. A security policy has been
configured on the device that allows traffic to flow between interfaces in the Trust zone.
What is causing this problem?
A. The interface on the device that connects to the Web server is not in the Trust zone.
B. The IPsec VPN connection between the users and the Web server is down.
C. There is a host inbound traffic configuration problem.
D. There is an antispam configuration problem.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You notice that the secondary node of a chassis cluster has become disabled.
What caused this behavior?
A. The fxp0 interface on the secondary device failed.
B. The control link between the devices failed.
C. A reth on the secondary device failed.
D. An IPsec tunnel between the two devices failed.
Answer: D

Juniper examen   JN0-696 examen   JN0-696 examen   JN0-696

2014年7月30日星期三

Le meilleur matériel de formation examen SAP C-TPLM30-66 C-TBIT44-731 C-TSCM42-66

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Code d'Examen: C-TPLM30-66
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Enterprise Asset Management (Maintenance & Repair) with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C-TBIT44-731
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Development Associate - Process Integration with SAP NetWeaver 7.31)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C-TSCM42-66
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which types of objects can be changed with Engineering Change Management (ECM)?(Choose
three)
A. Task list
B. Work center
C. Production version
D. Bill of material
E. Material master
Answer: A,D,E

SAP   certification C-TSCM42-66   C-TSCM42-66   certification C-TSCM42-66

NO.2 You want to use the different options for planning in SAP ECC.
What is the correct sequence of the planning procedures?
A. Sales and operations planning -> Demand management -> Long-term planning -> Material
requirements planning -> Capacity planning
B. Demand management -> Sales and operations planning -> Capacity planning -> Long-term
planning -> Material requirements planning
C. Material requirements planning -> Demand management -> Sales and operations planning ->
Long-term planning -> Capacity planning
D. Long-term planning -> Sales and operations planning -> Demand management -> Material
requirements planning -> Capacity planning
Answer: A

SAP examen   certification C-TSCM42-66   certification C-TSCM42-66   certification C-TSCM42-66   C-TSCM42-66 examen   C-TSCM42-66 examen

NO.3 The final assembly of a finished product should only be triggered when a customer order
arrives.
Which planning strategy for the finished product do you use?
A. Planning with make-to-stock (strategy 10)
B. Planning at the assembly level (strategy 70)
C. Planning without final assembly (strategy 50)
D. Planning with final assembly (strategy 40)
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which objects can affect the calculation of capacity requirements for an operation?(Choose
three)
A. Standard values (routing)
B. In-house production time (material master)
C. Transport time (routing)
D. Formulas (work center)
E. Operation control key (routing)
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.5 Which activity can trigger an automatic availability check for the components of a production
order?
A. Material staging
B. Order rescheduling
C. Order release
D. Goods receipt for a missing part
Answer: C

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NO.6 In the Customizing for requirements planning, a project team notices that the alternatives P1,
P2, P3 and P4 are also delivered as standard in addition to MRP type PD. The number in each of
these alternatives represents a firming type.
What does a firming type define?(Choose two)
A. Handling existing procurement proposals outside the planning time fence.
B. Handling existing procurement proposals within a planning time fence.
C. Handling new requirements within the planning time fence.
D. Handling new procurement proposals that need to be created due to new requirements within
the planning time fence.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 You want to use the function "Read PP master data" in the production order.
However, while calling the function you receive an error message.
What could be the reason?
A. The material availability check has been performed.
B. Goods movements have been posted.
C. The production order has been released.
D. Order papers have been printed.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following scheduling types can only be used in capacity planning?
A. Midpoint
B. Forward
C. Only capacity requirements
D. Backward
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 6103
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya ERS 8000 and Avaya VSP 9000 Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 3108
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Scopia Solution Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

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NO.1 When troubleshooting an issue with an ERS 8000, running version 7.2, a technician notices
that the "Online" LED is steady amber for longer than 3 minutes. This is an indication of a software
incompatibility.
What is the first step in resolving this issue?
A. Use the show chassis command to look for software versions running on the switch.
B. Use the show compatibility command to verify that all software running is compatible.
C. Reboot the switch using the boot flags to force the switch to auto-update the software.
D. Use the show log command to check the system log for indications of communication problems.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which function does the "RS" module for the ERS 8000 provide that the "R" module does not?
A. multiple port mirroring
B. multiple port cloning
C. SMLT functionality
D. extended port monitoring
Answer: C

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NO.3 Given the following command:
VSP-9012:1S show khi performance
Which Key Health Indicator is only valid for the CP modules?
A. CPU
B. buffer-pool
C. error-count
D. process
E. memory
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which multicast technology, used with the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000, allows the
router to determine whether any group members exist on its directly connected networks and
switches?
A. IGAP
B. IGMP
C. DVMRP
D. PIM-SM
Answer: B

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Reference:http://198.152.212.23 /css/P8 /documents/100175888(page 20)

NO.5 In the current business environment everyone is being asked to do more with fewer physical
resources. Using virtualization allows the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 to increase the
services provided.
By using VRF-Lite, what does the VSP 9000 eliminate the need for?
A. SMLT
B. RSMLT
C. Non-overlapping addresses
D. Multiple physical routers
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.avaya.com/usa/resource/assets/factsheet/vsp%209000%20dn4535 %20final
10-10.pdf(page 3, device virtualization)

NO.6 QoS is the ability to manage the performance of data flows by giving treatment to the data
flows, users, and applications.
For which two network problems would QoS be a good solution? (Choose two.)
A. interface duplex mismatch
B. slow route table convergence
C. lack of bandwidth
D. end-to-end delay
E. network loops
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 An engineer is configuring the VSP 9000 for EDM management, and cannot connect from the
EDM computer to the VSP 9000.
Once logged into the ACLI, which show command is used to see the status of the web server?
A. show vsp edm server
B. show ip web-server
C. show sys webserver
D. show web-server
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer is mirroring multiple ports to a single monitor port.
What happens if the mirrored traffic exceeds the bandwidth of the monitor port?
A. The traffic will be buffered until there is available bandwidth.
B. The excess traffic will be dropped randomly.
C. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the mirror priority of the ingress port.
D. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the port priority of the ingress port.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: VCP550
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on vSphere 5 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 267 Q&As

Code d'Examen: VDCD510
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Advanced Professional - Datacenter DesignExam)
Questions et réponses: 279 Q&As

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NO.1 You are the technical designer for a vSphere platform transformation project. After conducting
SME interviews and using various platform information-gathering methods, you have created a
high-level design document. This document specifies the following: Requirements: R1. The solution
must not have a single point of failure. R2. Production applications must not have an outage of
more than 10 seconds. R3. Data must be based in the UK. R4. There is a 7-year retention policy for
contracts. R5. Applications should support existing and developing workloads for the next 3 years'
growth. Spec of servers: Web 1 vCPU, 2 GB RAM, 100 GB storage App 1 vCPU, 4 GB RAM, 100 Gb
storage DB 2 vCPU, 16 GB RAM, 750 Gb storage At a late stage in the software development life
cycle of a production application developed in- house, an unfortunate issue was identified when the
application was deployed to the production vSphere cluster. The production core stacked switch has
capacity issues, and this is having a serious impact on all applications for which the switch is
providing network services. Within the test system, the application works as intended in the single
test VLAN and with a single-host configuration. Which of the following could be tried to help in this
situation, from a vSphere perspective? (Choose two)
A. Redevelop the application for a virtual platform
B. Place the application into a single-vApp network
C. Add DRS rules to keep network traffic within the same host, where possible
D. Configure network I/O control
Answer: B,D

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Explanation:
If you limit the application traffic to a specific dedicated network (that is, a separate VLAN) and
using enforced DRS affinity rules, the application traffic will not traverse the ESXi host's physical
network interfaces. This will ensure that the impact of the application is minimized, while also
ensuring that the application itself is not limited. The application servers already have vCPU settings.
This suggests that the system has already being virtualized in both types of environments. Network
I/O control could be useful in the event of contention, but the role of a designer would be to plan to
prevent contention where possible;
other options would be more beneficial.
In addition, Requirement 5 specifies that the system should work with workloads over the next 3
years. Network I/O control would suggest contention very early in the platform history. Chapter 4,
NetWork - Logical and Physical Design to allow applications to flow
3. Based on the information in the high-level design extract for question 2, which type of data
store would be required?
A. VMFS
B. NFS
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Because fault tolerance would be the only VMware technology that would meet the technical
requirements, VMFS is the only choice here. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical
Approaches
4. A project requirement
A. must be achieved
B. can be set as aspirational but may never be achieved
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A project requirement is a specific deliverable that the business has said must be provided at the
end of a project. It must always be achieved. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical
Approaches
5. The vCenter database is powered off ungracefully, along with a three cluster nodes in a
separate cluster. Will the failed existing ESXi host nodes restart correctly using Auto Deploy?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Auto Deploy enables an untrained IT professional to increase capacity while ensuring
quality and consistency within a cluster. However, there is a dependency on the
vCenter server and Auto Deploy server roles at different times. In this case, the ESXi
hosts have already booted successfully. This means that all subsequent reboots will be
controlled using configuration from the Auto Deploy server, not vCenter. If the
vCenter database is impacted, the ESXi hosts will automatically restore. Even in the
event of no vCenter availability, hosts will use the last-known copy of a distributed
switch or the configured vSphere switch.
Chapter X, Putting it all together
6. A logical diagram shows vendor-specific information.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A logical diagram shows the high-level components of a design or platform.
It may include descriptions such as data flow and entity relationships. However, it does not show
specific vendors (such as Dell or HP).
Chapter 2, Creating the design
7. You are a VMware architect employed to design and build application environments and the
underlying platform for a software development company.
The company is using a "devops" approach and has engaged with you at the beginning of the first
planning meeting/pre-sprint.
The software has yet to be written. However, you have some high-level specifications that are
subject to change at each of the early meetings.
The is more logical for virtual machine sizing.
A. predictive sizing approach based on current software
B. adaptive sizing approach
Answer: B

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Explanation:
There are two types of scaling approaches in virtual platforms:
adaptive and predictive. Both approaches are usable; however, a designer must work out which is
the best approach for each project. The adaptive approach to guest virtual machine design is a
major advantage that virtualization technology brings to a datacenter. It allows a guest virtual
machine to be created initially on a few metrics or high-level requirements (such as a limited budget)
and scaled (that is, grown, not shrunk) through the virtual machine life cycle. In many cases, this
scaling can be performed hot/live without outage/downtime to the running applications. The
predictive approach, on the other hand, requires more planning and research, and you must know
the metrics before deployment. The advantage here is that once the virtual machine has been
deployed, only application maintenance is required. The application requirements are known.
Chapter 5, Design Approaches
8. You are working on a hybrid cloud project, where production applications (yet to be fully
developed) are to be deployed. Which of the following is a project requirement?
A. The production data must be in the UK at all times.
B. The hosting partner provides sufficient resources without overcommitment to support
application load.
C. The hosting provider meets uptime expectations.
D. The development team provides the software on time.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A requirement is a definable and measurable project item. It must be part of the delivery, and its
removal cannot be justified. Chapter 2, Definitions of Key Terms
9. Storage DRS is enabled by default.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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10. Based on the information in the high-level design extract from question 2, what storage
protocol is unsuitable?
A. NFS
B. iSCSI
C. FC
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The requirements state that the application uptime requirements would not be met if using vSphere
HA alone. vSphere HA would
invoke a restart of guest virtual machines after at least 10 seconds. VMware fault tolerance would
meet the uptime
requirements; a failover would result in zero downtime of the application. This technology can be
used only with VMFS; therefore, NFS cannot be used in this design. Chapter 4, NetWork - Logical
and Physical Design to allow applications to flow
11. A logical design can contain which of the following? (Choose three)
A. BIOS settings
B. Data flow
C. Key component relationships
D. High-level diagrams
E. Server host names
Answer: B,C,D

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Explanation:
A logical diagram can be used to show service components and how they relate to each other. A
logical diagram is high level in nature and is independent of the hardware used for a solution.
Chapter 2, Presenting the Data Gathered
12. A best practice can change over time.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A best practice is based on experience with delivering a solution. A new product will
have limited best-practice information except for vendor- or vendor-partner-based
recommendations.
The longer a technology is used in a community, the more
potential success; therefore, best practices can change over time.
Chapter 6, Validation, Thoughts, and Processes
13. When designing a storage platform, which of the following should be considered as part of
the overall design?
A. Capacity
B. I/O requirements of the applications to be supported
C. Disk latency tolerance
D. Growth rate
E. All of the above
Answer: E

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Explanation:
A storage platform logical design requires in-depth analysis of factors that can affect applications.In
the case of storage, aspects that relate to the physical layer-such as the amount of usable space
required for services;
the size, number, and speed of disks; and how fast the data is being produced-could have a
substantial impact to the storage platform. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical
Approaches
14. Only a software vendor develops a standard process or configuration.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A best practice is based on experience with delivering a solution. A new product will have limited
best-practice information except for vendor- or vendor-partner-based recommendations.
The longer a technology is used in a community, the more potential success; therefore, best
practices may be recommended by non-vendor-related people. It is up to a designer to validate this
information rather than ignore it straightaway. Chapter 6, Validation, Thoughts, and Processes
15. Which of the following vSphere cluster technologies would meet the application
requirements specified in the high-level design extract for question 2?
A. FT
B. HA
Answer: A

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Explanation:
vSphere HA would need to wait at least 10 seconds before a restart would be possible. This would
not meet requirements. In the event of a restart, it could be possible to be without the application
feed database for about 15 minutes. VMware FT would enable the service to be provided without
additional redevelopment. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches

NO.2 Storage DRS can be enabled and can balance I/O levels based on
A. real-time stats
B. historical stats
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Storage DRS can balance I/O by using storage vMotion. This would be based on historical values for
a period of time. Storage DRS would make decisions based on these figures. If the system were
using realtime stats, the machines could potentially migrate a lot more. This could have an effect on
the latency figures for some systems. The larger historical sampling in storage DRS allows the system
to make a decision with limited risk of impacting I/O-unlike moving a virtual machine over and over
again. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches

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NO.1 Which three background processes are mandatory in a database Instance started with a
minimally configured Initialization parameter file?
A. Process Monitor Process (PMON)
B. Flashback Data Archive process (FBDA)
C. Space Management Coordinator process (SMCO)
D. Recoverer process (RECO)
E. Listener Registration process (LREG)
F. Checkpoint process (CKPT)
Answer: A,D,F

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Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01 /server.112 /e25789/process.htm#CNCPT9840

NO.2 Which statement about Storage Snapshot Optimization is correct?
A. It enables you to use third-party technologies to take a storage snapshot of your database
without putting the database in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part
of the database.
B. It enables you to use RMAN to take a storage snapshot of your database. The database must be in
BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the database.
C. It enables you to use RMAN to take a storage snapshot of your database. The database doesn't
have to be in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the database.
D. It enables you to use third-party technologies to take a storage snapshot of your database. The
database must be in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the
database.
Answer: A

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Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01 /backup.121 /e17630/release_changes.htm#BRADV276 (new
features, third bullet)

NO.3 Your customer has two CDBs: one for Production and one for development. You are asked to
create a new development PDB (salesdev) from an existing production PDB (salesprd). Which two
options would accomplish this?
A. You copy all the PDBSSEEDdata files from the production CDB into the development CDB and
execute this on the development COB;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev ADMIN USER salesdm IDENTIFIED by password;
B. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode, and start cloning the source
database:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev FROM salesprd;
C. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
In the development CDB, you create a databaselink "PRD" that connects to the root of the source
CDB, and start cloning the source PDB:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevFROM salesprd@prd;
D. Connected as the salesprd local DBA, you create an XML using:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salespdb UNPLUG INTO ' /tmp/salesprd-xml' ;
Copy the XML file and all salesprd-related files to the target CDB and start plugging the copy into
the development CDB using:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevUSING' /tmp/salesprd.xml';
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three statements are true about System Global Area (SGA)?
A. SGA contains shared memory structures for all Oracle processes running on a single server.
B. Each server process has its own SGA.
C. SGA is allocated automatically when a database is started.
D. SGA is used to speed up queries by caching data blocks, program data, information about
database objects, and query results
E. SGA is allocated automatically when a database is mounted.
F. SGA is read and written by server and background processes.
Answer: C,D,F

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NO.5 Your customer needs server availability that provides uninterrupted access to database
services, handling any unexpected failure of one or more machines hosting the database server, due
to a hardware or software fault. Which product should your customer use?
A. Oracle Data Guard
B. Oracle Streams
C. Oracle Real Application Clusters
D. Oracle GoldenGate
Answer: C

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Reference:
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/availability/maximum-availability-wp-12c1896116.p
df (page 5, Server HA: Oracle Real Application Clusters)

NO.6 You are about to install Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition. Which statement is true?
A. You should not install the Oracle Database software into an existing Oracle home from a different
release.
B. A multitenant container database (CDB) can have several pluggable databases (PDBs) with
different character sets.
C. Oracle recommends that you back up the root. sh script after you complete the installation.
D. Cloning an Oracle home is useful if you are performing multiple Oracle Database Installations.
E. You can stop existing Oracle processes, including the listener and the database running in the
Oracle home, before the database software installation.
Answer: E

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NO.7 A DBA informs you that an Oracle instance has started. What does this imply?
A. Users can access the data in the database.
B. Only SGA has been allocated for the database.
C. Only background and user processes are running.
D. Memory areas have been allocated and background processes have been started.
Answer: D

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NO.8 In which situation would you use static database registration for a listener?
A. when multiple databases are to be registered with the listener
B. when DBAs need to connect remotely to start up the database instance
C. when users need to connect the database instance by using the host naming method
D. when the database instance to be registered with the listener is configured in shared server
mode
Answer: C

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