显示标签为“PK0-003”的博文。显示所有博文
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2014年6月5日星期四

Le plus récent matériel de formation CompTIA PK0-003 SY0-401 FC0-U41

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Code d'Examen: PK0-003
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (Project+ (2009))
Questions et réponses: 367 Q&As

Code d'Examen: SY0-401
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Security+ Certification)
Questions et réponses: 512 Q&As

Code d'Examen: FC0-U41
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata IT Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 273 Q&As

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NO.1 .Which of the following transmits all ATSC HDTV standards and supports 8-channel digital audio?
A. DVI
B. S-Video
C. SVGA
D. HDMI
Answer: D

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NO.2 DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the appropriate class of fire extinguisher in front of types of fires.

NO.3 .Which of the following devices is used for accessing the data on Secure Digital (SD) card, MMC card,
and CompactFlash (CF)?
A. E-book reader
B. Memory card reader
C. Smart card reader
D. Barcode reader
Answer: B

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NO.4 HOTSPOT
Identify the CNR slot in the image given below.

NO.5 .Which of the following are types of LCD monitors?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. SVGA
B. Active Matrix
C. Passive Matrix
D. X-Matrix
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 .You are handling IT support for a sales company. One of the sales representatives complains that his
laptop does not have a network card. You wish to add one via an expansion slot. What type of expansion
card should you use?
A. MCA
B. PCMCIA
C. PCI
D. AGP
Answer: B

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NO.7 .Which of the following features are related to power management? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose two.
A. Hot plugging
B. Hibernate mode
C. Standby mode
D. Safe mode
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 .Which of the following statements about a riser card is true?
A. It is used to connect a computer in a network.
B. It is used to connect extra microprocessors.
C. It provides extra memory for expansion cards.
D. It is used to extend slots for expansion cards.
Answer: D

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2014年3月22日星期六

PK0-003 dernières questions d'examen certification CompTIA et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: PK0-003
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (Project+ (2009))
Questions et réponses: 367 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is the purpose of a milestone schedule?
A. A detailed summary of the project milestones that need to be achieved.
B. A summary level timetable of the major project milestones.
C. A summary of the anticipated milestones and the issues identified for the project.
D. A detailed summary of the anticipated milestones and risks identified for the project.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Two SMEs disagree with the designed plan for a particular component. The project will be delayed if
the plan is not approved today. The project manager demands the SMEs work together to incorporate
their modifications by the close of business today. Which of the following resolution techniques was used?
A. Negotiating
B. Forcing
C. Smoothing
D. Compromise
Answer: B

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NO.3 A key stakeholder has asked the project manager to complete the project a week earlier than expected.
To accomplish this objective, the project manager will have to ask the project team to work overtime,
which will increase the cost of the project. Which of the following should be the NEXT
A. Ask the key stakeholder for more funding for the project.
B. Ask the project team to work overtime to finish the project.
C. Obtain an approved change control document before changing the project schedule.
D. Agree to complete the project using the new schedule.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following are common causes of project team conflict? (Select TWO).
A. Project schedule
B. Competing resource demands
C. Project budget
D. Varying work styles
E. Time zone difference
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 A project manager has just completed the planning of a project, but cannot start the project execution
until granted permission from the project sponsor. This is an example of which of the following actions?
A. Stakeholder analysis
B. Risk assessment
C. Audit review
D. Phase gate
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is described when a company requires version control of project
documents?
A. Decision oversight
B. Regulatory compliance
C. Internal process compliance
D. Change management controls
Answer: D

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NO.7 Two employees will not work on the same project together. The project manager tells the employees to
talk to their supervisors because the supervisors recommended they work together.
This is an example of which of the following conflict resolution styles?
A. Withdrawing
B. Forcing
C. Accepting
D. Compromising
Answer: B

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NO.8 In an attempt to make a deadline, a North American project manager is able to procure emergency
funding for additional people. The resources are located in Europe. Which of the following project
components will have to be updated to reflect working with a new time zone location?
A. Communication plan
B. Risk management plan
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Project scope statement
Answer: A

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NO.9 A project manager learns that a team member has falsified work experience, and does not have the
knowledge required to complete the task. Which of the following should the project manager do?
A. Reassign the individual to another role on the project team.
B. Ignore the situation hoping that everything works out for the best.
C. Assign other individuals to assist on the task to ensure the task does not get delayed further.
D. Replace the member and ask the team manager to assign a more qualified person.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Transition plans include which of the following elements?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Project warranty
C. Project process reports
D. Earned value calculations
Answer: B

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NO.11 A project manager is completing a project schedule network diagram using dummy activities to show all
logical relationships. Which of the following tools is the project manager using?
A. ADM
B. WBS
C. AON
D. PDM
Answer: A

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NO.12 The initiation process concludes with the creation of which of the following?
A. Contingency reserve
B. Project charter
C. Project schedule
D. Project scope statement
Answer: B

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NO.13 Three of the team members are having a conflict with each other. Which of the following steps should
the project manager take to minimize the conflict?
A. Resolve the conflict by terminating the team members.
B. Ignore the conflict and keep working on the project.
C. Encourage the team members to resolve the conflict.
D. Ask the project sponsor to resolve the conflict.
Answer: C

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NO.14 The method of cost-estimating whereby the costs of the individual work packages are aggregated to
form the full cost-estimate is called:
A. parametric estimating.
B. bottom-up estimating.
C. expert judgment.
D. analogous estimating.
Answer: B

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NO.15 A stakeholder has determined the need to update their payroll method with a new system. Which of the
following is the FIRST activity the corporation should perform?
A. Conduct a feasibility study.
B. Determine the justification of the project.
C. Obtain a preliminary review by the project selection committee.
D. Determine if the project is in alignment with the company strategic plan.
Answer: C

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NO.16 One of the team members assigned to a project is not performing well. The team member is new and is
not experienced in the type of work involved with this project. Which of the following is the BEST response
to this situation?
A. Ask other members to help.
B. Assign the team member to another project.
C. Talk to the team member to encourage better performance.
D. Arrange for training for the team member
Answer: D

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NO.17 In order to validate a project, which of the following is required to complete a stakeholder analysis?
A. Verify the project stakeholder needs, wants, and expectations are turned into requirements.
B. Verify the project stakeholders have been selected by the project manager to provide the best scope
for the project.
C. Verify the project team members will be able to provide the expected stakeholder results.
D. Verify the project stakeholders needs are documented in the work breakdown structure (WBS)
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following is the MOST common relationship used, when constructing a project schedule
network diagram?
A. Start-to-Finish
B. Finish-to-Start
C. Start-to-Start
D. Finish-to-Finish
Answer: B

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NO.19 A project change is approved by the Change Control Board that modifies the project scope. Which of
the following is the NEXT step that the project
A. Construct a detailed plan to implement the change.
B. Analyze the Impact of the change request.
C. Document the request in the change control log.
D. Request a meeting with the project sponsor to discuss scope creep.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following represents the EAC of an ongoing project with an AC of $100,000, a CV of
$10,000 and an ETC of $50,000?
A. $90,000
B. $140,000
C. $150,000
D. $160,000
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which of the following is the method for determining the critical path of a project?
A. Determine the BAC of a project and the AC at completion; calculate the difference.
B. Examine the project schedule and determine the two most critical milestones: then calculate the total
time form the start of the first determined milestone to the end of the second.
C. Examine the project schedule and place all scheduled activities on one time-line, regardless as to
whether they are being implemented in parallel. Then calculate the total time taken.
D. Examine the project schedule and calculate the total time taken for all scheduled activities, from
commencement of the project to closure, with zero float.
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which of the following shows the number of communication channels for a team with twelve
stakeholders?
A. 56
B. 66
C. 72
D. 132
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which of the following can the project manager do to manage scope creep?
A. Be open minded to new ideas to the project.
B. Be flexible about what needs to be done to complete the project.
C. Be specific when defining project objectives in the project plan.
D. Be positive when approached with changes to ensure customer satisfaction.
Answer: C

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NO.24 The formal process that must be performed at the end of the project to provide the final inspection of the
product is called:
A. methodology verification.
B. scope verification.
C. change verification.
D. system verification.
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which of the following is a component of the cost management plan?
A. Team member compensation
B. Statement of Work (SOW)
C. Project needs assessment
D. Control limits
Answer: D

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NO.26 A project manager notices that status meetings are poorly attended and that one or two team member
try to dominate the meetings. Which of the following should the project manager do to make the project
status meetings more productive? (Select TWO).
A. Include agenda items in the meeting invitation.
B. Ensure that the meetings start and end on time.
C. Provide criticism to poor team performers.
D. Allow the team members to set the tone of the meeting.
E. Discuss issues during the meeting until they are resolved.
Answer: A,E

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NO.27 Which of the following would be the benefit of saving a project binder in a centralized location.?
A. Provides an opportunity for another project manager to review the binder and make corrections.
B. Provides an opportunity for team members to review their contributions.
C. Provides other project managers the opportunity to review the project information.
D. Provides stakeholders the opportunity to modify the change request forms.
Answer: B

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NO.28 A project manager needs to identify uncertain events during the planning phase. Which of the following
documents would be the BEST source of this information?
A. Quality log
B. Risk register
C. Issues log
D. Responsibility assignment math
Answer: B

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NO.29 In order to complete the core-project setup, which of the following is the MOST important task of the
project sponsor?
A. Obtain funding for the project.
B. Provide quality review of the deliverables.
C. Provide leadership to the project team.
D. Obtain resolution of the application development Issues.
Answer: A

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NO.30 A project is cancelled unexpectedly prior to completion. Which of the following would the project
manager use to document the details of the project closure?
A. Histogram
B. Postmortem
C. SWOT analysis
D. Project scope statement
Answer: B

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2014年3月13日星期四

Pass4Test offre une formation sur CompTIA CN0-201 SK0-003 FC0-TS1 FC0-GR1 PK0-003 matériaux examen

Les produits de Pass4Test sont recherchés par les experts de Pass4Test qui se profitent de leurs connaissances et leurs expériences dans l'Idustrie IT. Si vous allez participer le test CompTIA CN0-201 SK0-003 FC0-TS1 FC0-GR1 PK0-003, vous devez choisir Pass4Test. La Q&A de Pass4Test peut vous aider à préparer mieux le test CompTIA CN0-201 SK0-003 FC0-TS1 FC0-GR1 PK0-003 avec sa grande couiverture des questions. En face d'un test très difficile, vous pouvez obtenir le Certificat CompTIA CN0-201 SK0-003 FC0-TS1 FC0-GR1 PK0-003 sans aucune doute.

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L'équipe de Pass4Test se composant des experts dans le domaine IT. Toutes les Q&As sont examinées par nos experts. Les Q&As offertes par Pass4Test sont réputées pour sa grande couverture ( presque 100%) et sa haute précision. Vous pouvez trouver pas mal de sites similaires que Pass4Test, ces sites peut-être peuvent vous offrir aussi les guides d'études ou les services en ligne, mais on doit admettre que Pass4Test peut être la tête de ces nombreux sites. La mise à jour, la grande couverture des questions, la haute précision des réponses nous permettent à augmenter le taux à réussir le test Certification CompTIA CN0-201 SK0-003 FC0-TS1 FC0-GR1 PK0-003. Tous les points mentionnés ci-dessus seront une assurance 100% pour votre réussite de test Certification CompTIA CN0-201 SK0-003 FC0-TS1 FC0-GR1 PK0-003.

Code d'Examen: CN0-201
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA CTP+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 302 Q&As

Code d'Examen: SK0-003
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 436 Q&As

Code d'Examen: FC0-TS1
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata IT for Sales )
Questions et réponses: 129 Q&As

Code d'Examen: FC0-GR1
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata Green IT Exam)
Questions et réponses: 85 Q&As

Code d'Examen: PK0-003
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (Project+ (2009))
Questions et réponses: 367 Q&As

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NO.1 A company utilizes the GFS backup standard. Which of the following describes this backup method?
A. Greatest, Final, Sequential
B. Full, Partial, Incremental
C. Monthly, Weekly, Daily
D. Full, Differential, Incremental
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is the BEST recovery method for a server that only aggregates report data and
stores data on separate servers?
A. Full
B. Disk imaging
C. Incremental
D. Tape backup
Answer: B

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NO.3 A stripe set of maximum size is to be configured using two physical disks. One disk has 150GB and the
other has 250GB in unallocated space. Which of the following will be the size of the stripe set.?
A. 150GB
B. 300GB
C. 400GB
D. 500GB
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following would be an advantage to using a blade server as opposed to a rack mount
server?
A. Blade servers allow for internal tape drives
B. Blade servers offer more rack density
C. Blade servers are typically faster
D. Blade servers allow for more RAM
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following BEST describes how server virtualization can cut down IT costs?
A. Server virtualization increases server application performance allowing productivity to be increased.
B. Server virtualization simplifies server administration and reduces the IT department staffing needs.
C. Server virtualization implements higher security measures at the server OS level reducing the need for
other security implementations.
D. Server virtualization is a more efficient use of hardware for multiple servers reducing the resource
utilization.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following BEST describes server virtualization?
A. A single logical server operating on multiple physical servers.
B. Applications hosted on a single server and deployed to multiple users.
C. Multiple servers used to host applications for multiple users.
D. Multiple logical servers operating on the same physical server.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following concepts is described as multiple logical subnets traversing the same physical
network?
A. DHCP
B. VLANs
C. DMZ
D. VPNs
Answer: B

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NO.8 Users report that they are unable to connect to a server. An administrator confirms that it is unreachable
across the network. Other administrators have been working in the server room throughout the day.
Which of the following is the NEXT step the administrator should take?
A. Verify the configuration of the connected port on the network switch.
B. Reboot the server.
C. Install a new NIC on the server.
D. Verify that network cables are connected.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following must be done to properly conduct testing of the data backup portion of a disaster
recovery plan?
A. Perform an integrity test of backup media.
B. Verify data on backup media can be read.
C. Verify that backups have occurred and were successful via the logs.
D. Restore backed up data to a test server.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following technologies allows multiple logical subnets to span an entire physical switched
network?
A. ARP
B. DMZ
C. VLAN
D. VPN
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following is the minimum number of drives in an RAID 0 configuration?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: A

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NO.12 A user cannot access files on /deps/it directory, the administrator verifies permissions are set rw-------
for the directory. Which of the following actions need to be performed to only grant read access to the user
on the IT directory?
A. Set folder permissions to 760.
B. Set folder permissions to 770.
C. Set folder permissions to modify.
D. Set folder permissions to full control.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following is a benefit of NAS over SAN?
A. Higher data integrity
B. Lower cost of implementation
C. Higher redundancy
D. Increased performance
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following is the MOST important consideration before making a change to a server?
A. Explore the ramification of the change before implementation.
B. Determine the service level agreement in place before implementation.
C. Review the equipment disposal procedures and policies before implementation.
D. Notify all staff members of the planned system outage before implementation.
Answer: A

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NO.15 A technician has a current baseline and is told to install additional memory and a faster NIC card. At
which point in time should the next baseline be run?
A. After the memory is installed
B. Before the upgrade is performed
C. After the NIC is installed
D. After the upgrades are performed
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following expansion cards should be installed in a server to allow the server to connect to a
SAN via a fiber channel?
A. SATA
B. iSCSI
C. SCSI
D. HBA
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following expansion cards should be installed into a server to provide iSCSI SAN
connectivity?
A. HBA
B. PBX
C. VoIP
D. NIC
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following internal storage technologies has the HIGHEST single drive storage capacity?
A. SAS
B. SATA
C. Flash
D. SCSI
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following are benefits of the HCL? (Select TWO).
A. Enhanced stability
B. Vendor supported
C. Higher number of available component choices
D. Lower cost
E. Enhanced security
Answer: AB

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NO.20 An administrator attempts to install the latest security patches for an older server. When the
administrator runs the patch installer, the install fails. The administrator tries again, and the installer fails
again. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this?
A. The administrator improperly configured the virtual memory settings on the server.
B. The administrator is using incorrect patch switches for the install.
C. The administrator is trying to install security patches for software that is not installed.
D. The administrator is trying to install patches that require hard drive encryption on the server.
Answer: C

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2013年10月8日星期二

CompTIA PK0-003 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: PK0-003
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (Project+ (2009))
Questions et réponses: 661 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following represents the EAC of an ongoing project with an AC of $100,000, a CV of
$10,000 and an ETC of $50,000?
A. $90,000
B. $140,000
C. $150,000
D. $160,000
Answer: C

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NO.2 A project is cancelled unexpectedly prior to completion. Which of the following would the project
manager use to document the details of the project closure?
A. Histogram
B. Postmortem
C. SWOT analysis
D. Project scope statement
Answer: B

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NO.3 A project manager is completing a project schedule network diagram using dummy activities to show all
logical relationships. Which of the following tools is the project manager using?
A. ADM
B. WBS
C. AON
D. PDM
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following are common causes of project team conflict? (Select TWO).
A. Project schedule
B. Competing resource demands
C. Project budget
D. Varying work styles
E. Time zone difference
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Two SMEs disagree with the designed plan for a particular component. The project will be delayed if
the plan is not approved today. The project manager demands the SMEs work together to incorporate
their modifications by the close of business today. Which of the following resolution techniques was used?
A. Negotiating
B. Forcing
C. Smoothing
D. Compromise
Answer: B

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NO.6 The formal process that must be performed at the end of the project to provide the final inspection of the
product is called:
A. methodology verification.
B. scope verification.
C. change verification.
D. system verification.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following can the project manager do to manage scope creep?
A. Be open minded to new ideas to the project.
B. Be flexible about what needs to be done to complete the project.
C. Be specific when defining project objectives in the project plan.
D. Be positive when approached with changes to ensure customer satisfaction.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is the purpose of a milestone schedule?
A. A detailed summary of the project milestones that need to be achieved.
B. A summary level timetable of the major project milestones.
C. A summary of the anticipated milestones and the issues identified for the project.
D. A detailed summary of the anticipated milestones and risks identified for the project.
Answer: A

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NO.9 In an attempt to make a deadline, a North American project manager is able to procure emergency
funding for additional people. The resources are located in Europe. Which of the following project
components will have to be updated to reflect working with a new time zone location?
A. Communication plan
B. Risk management plan
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Project scope statement
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following would be the benefit of saving a project binder in a centralized location.?
A. Provides an opportunity for another project manager to review the binder and make corrections.
B. Provides an opportunity for team members to review their contributions.
C. Provides other project managers the opportunity to review the project information.
D. Provides stakeholders the opportunity to modify the change request forms.
Answer: B

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NO.11 In order to validate a project, which of the following is required to complete a stakeholder analysis?
A. Verify the project stakeholder needs, wants, and expectations are turned into requirements.
B. Verify the project stakeholders have been selected by the project manager to provide the best scope
for the project.
C. Verify the project team members will be able to provide the expected stakeholder results.
D. Verify the project stakeholders needs are documented in the work breakdown structure (WBS)
Answer: D

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NO.12 A project manager needs to identify uncertain events during the planning phase. Which of the following
documents would be the BEST source of this information?
A. Quality log
B. Risk register
C. Issues log
D. Responsibility assignment math
Answer: B

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NO.13 One of the team members assigned to a project is not performing well. The team member is new and is
not experienced in the type of work involved with this project. Which of the following is the BEST response
to this situation?
A. Ask other members to help.
B. Assign the team member to another project.
C. Talk to the team member to encourage better performance.
D. Arrange for training for the team member
Answer: D

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NO.14 A project manager has just completed the planning of a project, but cannot start the project execution
until granted permission from the project sponsor. This is an example of which of the following actions?
A. Stakeholder analysis
B. Risk assessment
C. Audit review
D. Phase gate
Answer: D

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NO.15 The method of cost-estimating whereby the costs of the individual work packages are aggregated to
form the full cost-estimate is called:
A. parametric estimating.
B. bottom-up estimating.
C. expert judgment.
D. analogous estimating.
Answer: B

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NO.16 The initiation process concludes with the creation of which of the following?
A. Contingency reserve
B. Project charter
C. Project schedule
D. Project scope statement
Answer: B

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NO.17 A project manager notices that status meetings are poorly attended and that one or two team member
try to dominate the meetings. Which of the following should the project manager do to make the project
status meetings more productive? (Select TWO).
A. Include agenda items in the meeting invitation.
B. Ensure that the meetings start and end on time.
C. Provide criticism to poor team performers.
D. Allow the team members to set the tone of the meeting.
E. Discuss issues during the meeting until they are resolved.
Answer: A,E

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NO.18 Which of the following is the MOST common relationship used, when constructing a project schedule
network diagram?
A. Start-to-Finish
B. Finish-to-Start
C. Start-to-Start
D. Finish-to-Finish
Answer: B

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NO.19 A stakeholder has determined the need to update their payroll method with a new system. Which of the
following is the FIRST activity the corporation should perform?
A. Conduct a feasibility study.
B. Determine the justification of the project.
C. Obtain a preliminary review by the project selection committee.
D. Determine if the project is in alignment with the company strategic plan.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Transition plans include which of the following elements?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Project warranty
C. Project process reports
D. Earned value calculations
Answer: B

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NO.21 Three of the team members are having a conflict with each other. Which of the following steps should
the project manager take to minimize the conflict?
A. Resolve the conflict by terminating the team members.
B. Ignore the conflict and keep working on the project.
C. Encourage the team members to resolve the conflict.
D. Ask the project sponsor to resolve the conflict.
Answer: C

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NO.22 A key stakeholder has asked the project manager to complete the project a week earlier than expected.
To accomplish this objective, the project manager will have to ask the project team to work overtime,
which will increase the cost of the project. Which of the following should be the NEXT
A. Ask the key stakeholder for more funding for the project.
B. Ask the project team to work overtime to finish the project.
C. Obtain an approved change control document before changing the project schedule.
D. Agree to complete the project using the new schedule.
Answer: C

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NO.23 Two employees will not work on the same project together. The project manager tells the employees to
talk to their supervisors because the supervisors recommended they work together.
This is an example of which of the following conflict resolution styles?
A. Withdrawing
B. Forcing
C. Accepting
D. Compromising
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which of the following shows the number of communication channels for a team with twelve
stakeholders?
A. 56
B. 66
C. 72
D. 132
Answer: B

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NO.25 In order to complete the core-project setup, which of the following is the MOST important task of the
project sponsor?
A. Obtain funding for the project.
B. Provide quality review of the deliverables.
C. Provide leadership to the project team.
D. Obtain resolution of the application development Issues.
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which of the following is a component of the cost management plan?
A. Team member compensation
B. Statement of Work (SOW)
C. Project needs assessment
D. Control limits
Answer: D

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NO.27 A project change is approved by the Change Control Board that modifies the project scope. Which of
the following is the NEXT step that the project
A. Construct a detailed plan to implement the change.
B. Analyze the Impact of the change request.
C. Document the request in the change control log.
D. Request a meeting with the project sponsor to discuss scope creep.
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which of the following is the method for determining the critical path of a project?
A. Determine the BAC of a project and the AC at completion; calculate the difference.
B. Examine the project schedule and determine the two most critical milestones: then calculate the total
time form the start of the first determined milestone to the end of the second.
C. Examine the project schedule and place all scheduled activities on one time-line, regardless as to
whether they are being implemented in parallel. Then calculate the total time taken.
D. Examine the project schedule and calculate the total time taken for all scheduled activities, from
commencement of the project to closure, with zero float.
Answer: D

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NO.29 A project manager learns that a team member has falsified work experience, and does not have the
knowledge required to complete the task. Which of the following should the project manager do?
A. Reassign the individual to another role on the project team.
B. Ignore the situation hoping that everything works out for the best.
C. Assign other individuals to assist on the task to ensure the task does not get delayed further.
D. Replace the member and ask the team manager to assign a more qualified person.
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which of the following is described when a company requires version control of project
documents?
A. Decision oversight
B. Regulatory compliance
C. Internal process compliance
D. Change management controls
Answer: D

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