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Code d'Examen: 000-053

Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Team Concert V3 )

Questions et réponses: 72 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-617

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Certified System Admin - DB2 10 System Admin for z/OS)

Questions et réponses: 126 Q&As

Code d'Examen: COG-706

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cognos Financial Statement Reporting Developer)

Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

Code d'Examen: COG-615

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cognos Real-time Monitoring Developer)

Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-M96

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Unica Enterprise Campaign Technical Mastery Test V1)

Questions et réponses: 91 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-M94

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM InfoSphere DataStage Fundamentals Tech Mastery v1)

Questions et réponses: 48 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-765

Nom d'Examen: IBM (Systems Management Technical V1)

Questions et réponses: 93 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the process to automatically start an audit policy at DB2 startup?
A. Specify DSNZPARM subsystem parameters AUDITST = *
B. Specify DSNZPARM subsystem parameter AUDITST = YES
C. Specify DSNZPARM subsystem parameter TRACSTR = YES
D. UPDATE SYSIBM.SYSAUDITPOLICIES SET DB2START=Y for the row of the audit policy to be auto
started.
Answer: D

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NO.2 The DB2 command -SET SYSPARM lets you change subsystem parameters while DB2 is up.
What is the correct syntax for loading a different DSNZPARM load module?
A. -SET SYSPARM LOAD
B. -SET SYSPARM RELOAD
C. -SET SYSPARM(dsnzparm name)
D. -SET SYSPARM LOAD(dsnzparm name)
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-617 examen   000-617   000-617

NO.3 Which directory table space CANNOT be REORGed in DB2 10?
A. DSNDB01.SPT01
B. DSNDB01.SCT02
C. DSNDB01.SYSUTILX
D. DSNDB01.SYSLGRNX
Answer: C

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NO.4 You have implemented hash access on a production table. In order to optimize hash access
performance you need to monitor the storage space utilized by hash access. How would you accomplish
this?
A. View real time statistics for the table.
B. Run RUNSTATS with the UPDATE SPACE option.
C. Issue the -DISPLAY DATABASE(*) SPACENAM(*) USE command.
D. Utilize a monitoring profile using the -DISPLAY PROFILE command.
Answer: A

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NO.5 To cancel any type of thread using a -CANCEL THREAD command what information is needed?
A. The token of the thread to be canceled.
B. The luwid of the thread to be canceled.
C. The connection name of the thread to be canceled.
D. The correlation name of the thread to be canceled.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Assume that you have implemented identity propagation and that the distributed user name is 'MARY'.
You have mapped this user name to the RACF user ID 'DB2USER1'. Which statement is true?
A. 'MARY' is authenticated by RACF.
B. 'DB2USER1' must be defined on the remote system.
C. Remote requests execute with the authority of 'MARY'.
D. Audit records for this transaction contains both RACF user ID 'DB2USER1' and the distributed user
'MARY'.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You have just defined the profile monitoring tables and related indexes using the DSNTIJSG job in the
SDSNSAMP library. In order to monitor the number of remote threads and connections you must insert
rows into the SYSIBM.DSN_PROFILE_TABLE and SYSIBM.DSN_PROFILE_ATTRIBUTES tables to
specify the monitoring functions to be used.
What is the next step in this process?
A. Issue the -START PROFILE command.
B. Issue the -DISPLAY THREAD command.
C. Issue the -START TRACE (MONITOR) command.
D. No further steps are needed. DB2 will automatically begin monitoring those DB2 threads identified in
the monitoring profile.
Answer: A

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NO.8 To satisfy a requirement to track and report on the administrative changes made by users with system
DBADM authority, which DB2 catalog table must be modified to enable this requirement.?
A. SYSIBM.SYSDBAUTH
B. SYSIBM.SYSRESAUTH
C. SYSIBM.SYSUSERAUTH
D. SYSIBM.SYSAUDITPOLICIES
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which statement describes a DB2 ROLE?
A. A role is a privilege.
B. A role is a USERID.
C. A role is a RACF entity.
D. A role is a database entity.
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-617   000-617   000-617

NO.10 Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the dynamic statement cache?
A. The dynamic statement cache resides in an above-the-bar pool.
B. Performance problems can occur if the dynamic statement cache is too small.
C. The REOPT(VARS) bind option is necessary in order to store the access path for a dynamic SQL
statement in the dynamic statement cache.
D. When updating statistics for an object manually, you need to invalidate statements in the dynamic
statement cache that refer to this object using RUNSTATS REPORT NO UPDATE NONE against the
object.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What process does the RESTORE SYSTEM utility NOT perform?
A. Restores logs from the log copy pool.
B. Applies logs to the data to a point in time.
C. Restores data from the database copy pool.
D. Applies only logs to the data if LOGONLY is specified.
Answer: A

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NO.12 What does the command -ALTER GROUPBUFFERPOOL(GBP1) RATIO(5.6) do?
A. Changes the ratio of directory entries to the local cache entries (LCE).
B. Changes the desired ratio of the number of lock entries to the number of data pages in the group buffer
pool.
C. Changes the desired ratio of the number of directory entries to the number of data pages in the group
buffer pool.
D. Changes the desired number of the data pages cast out to those that remain in the group buffer pool
when the group buffer pool checkpoint occurs.
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is NOT required for recovery of the DB2 catalog at a disaster recovery site?
A. All catalog table spaces.
B. IBM defined indexes on the catalog.
C. XML objects for the catalog table spaces.
D. LOB objects for the catalog table spaces.
Answer: C

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NO.14 When a data sharing member fails, what is the final state of the connections to the DB2 lock structure
in the coupling facility?
A. It is finally marked as FAILING.
B. It is immediately marked as FAILED PERSISTENT for the failing member.
C. It is marked as FAILING and then finally changed to FAILED PERSISTENT upon receiving
DiscFailCon from all members.
D. It is marked as FAILED PERSISTENT and then finally changed to FAILING upon receiving
DiscFailCon from all members.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which limiting attribute CANNOT be included in the definition of a trusted context?
A. A DB2 SSID.
B. An IPv4 address.
C. An IPv6 address.
D. A secure domain name.
Answer: A

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NO.16 You start your DB2 subsystem and check the messages in the MSTR address space. DB2 issues
message DSNJ120I indicating that it detected unequal timestamps in the BSDSs. What is the required
action to allow DB2 to start successfully?
A. DB2 restart is halted and an open reply lets you use the -RECOVER BSDS command to fix the
problem.
B. Use the VSAM REPRO utility to overwrite the older BSDS with the most recent one and issue START
DB2 again.
C. DB2 shuts down when this problem occurs. You must issue -START DB2 again and DB2 will try to
re-synchronize the BSDSs now.
D. No action is needed. DB2 automatically tries to re-synchronize and continues with the restart if the
re-synchronization was successful.
Answer: D

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NO.17 In a production DB2 subsystem, the display of database DBFW8401 shows that pages have been
added to the LPL. The indexes for the database have the COPY NO attribute.
Which utility is used to remove these pages from the LPL status?
A. REPAIR
B. RECOVER
C. CHECK INDEX
D. REBUILD INDEX
Answer: D

IBM   000-617 examen   000-617

NO.18 DB2 10 enhances the profile table monitoring facility to support the filtering and threshold monitoring for
the number of connections using which categories?
A. All local and DRDA connections.
B. Collection IDs and IP addresses.
C. Role and Authorization Identifiers.
D. Product Identifiers and Package Names.
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-617   000-617   000-617   certification 000-617

NO.19 The standard audit trace has limitations. Which statement is true?
A. You can audit the catalog tables.
B. You can audit every access to a table.
C. You can audit all utilities including DSN1.... ones.
D. You can start a specific audit trace at DB2 startup.
Answer: D

IBM   000-617   000-617   000-617   000-617

NO.20 In order to separate DB2 security administration duties from DB2 system administration duties, which
step(s) must be performed?
A. Set both SECADM system parameters to an authorization ID and Role.
B. Specify YES to SEPARATE_ SECURITY and set one SYSADM system parameter to an authorization
ID or Role.
C. Specify YES to SEPARATE_ SECURITY and set one SECADM system parameter to an authorization
ID or Role.
D. Specify YES to PROTECT parameter and set one SECADM system parameter to an
authorization ID or Role.
Answer: C

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Dernières IBM COG-615 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: COG-615

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cognos Real-time Monitoring Developer)

Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer switches from internal authentication to external LDAP authentication. They have an
existing internal user "Bob" with a password "internal". They have another user named "Bob" in the
external LDAP server with password "external". They synchronize the users from the external LDAP
server to Real-time Monitoring. Why is the customer unable to login with the username and password
"Bob/external"?
A. Synchronization succeeded and the external user Bob replaced the existing internal user Bob.
B. Synchronization failed as there was an existing internal user Bob in the metadata, so no new external
user was imported.
C. Synchronization succeeded and the external user Bob was skipped because there was an existing
internal user Bob in the metadata.
D. Synchronization failed but the internal user Bob was deleted and no new external user was imported.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A small banking customer is using Real-time Monitoring (RTM) to monitor and notify customers if they
are over drafting their checking accounts. Customer information like name and e-mail address are in a
DB2 database and joined to the data based on the account ID. The customers all have accounts in RTM
and are members of the "Customers" role. The alert should only be sent to the primary e-mail account and
not shown on the RTM dashboard. What must you do to accomplish this goal?
A. Choose the "Account ID" column for a data-driven subscription.
B. Choose the "Email" column for a data-driven subscription.
C. Subscribe the "Customers" role to the alert as a mandatory subscriber.
D. Subscribe each user from the "Customers" role to the alert as an optional subscriber.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A virtual machine farm technician is monitoring the memory usage of hundreds of virtual machines in
the farm. The technician previously defined a rule to be informed with an immediate notification if the
memory usage on any virtual machine remains above 90 percent for two minutes. The technician now
wants to reset the alert once the memory usage stabilizes and falls below 80 percent after such an
incident. Which three steps are part of the solution? (Choose three.)
A. Define a rule with condition -- memory usage < 90%.
B. Define a rule with condition -- memory usage < 80%.
C. Create a new alert and select "Reset an alert".
D. Select the alert defined for "memory usage > 90%" and choose "Reset an alert for a specific
occurrence".
E. Specify "Maintain alert states for".
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.4 Which three settings are required to synchronize the user and/or roles from an external directory server,
like LDAP, to Real-time Monitoring? (Choose three.)
A. LDAP User Primary Email
B. LDAP User Base DN
C. LDAP Port
D. LDAP Synchronization User DN
E. LDAP Principal DN Prefix
Answer: B,C,D

IBM   COG-615   certification COG-615   COG-615 examen

NO.5 A user wants to set up an escalation rule for an alert which was still in an exception condition for more
than two hours. Which function should be used in the rule?
A. HOLDS_FOR
B. IS_RAISED
C. IS_ACKED
D. ESCALATE
Answer: B

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NO.6 Real-time Monitoring (RTM) is used as a performance management tool in a call center. An alert with
the agent name and agent code is generated when the performance of an agent is below a specified
threshold value. Managers have requested that the alert message provide a link to the ERP system. The
link should contain the agent code as a parameter in the URL. How would you accomplish this goal?
A. Use an external portlet with a dynamic parameter.
B. Use an external reportlet with a dynamic parameter.
C. Use an external reportlet with a static parameter for the agent code.
D. Insert a direct link to the ERP system in the alert body.
Answer: B

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NO.7 When editing a user's Access Permissions, what is meant by the term Effective Permissions?
A. the greatest level of permission assigned by Role-Granted and User-Specific permissions
B. the user's permissions against the currently selected object
C. the lowest level of permission assigned by Role-Granted and User-Specific permissions
D. the permission implementation that most effectively secures your application
Answer: A

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NO.8 A retail customer wants to monitor inventory shortages using the Real-time Monitoring application. They
would like to be notified by e-mail when any particular item is below a predefined threshold. Since
replenishment occurs weekly, they do not want to be notified again until the inventory has been restocked.
Which two actions accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)
A. Create a fire rule with "do not notify" set to seven days.
B. Create a rule which resets a previously raised alert.
C. Create a "notify me once" rule which automatically resets weekly.
D. Create a "raise" rule which will send an alert message.
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 A user belongs to a role whose members have read-only access to views, cubes, and dimensions. Why
is this user able to edit a particular view in the Real-time Monitoring Workbench?
A. The user has been granted read/write permission directly on the DataStream used by the view.
B. The role the user belongs to has been granted read/write permission directly on the DataStream used
by the view.
C. All views are editable by default, regardless of permissions inherited by the role.
D. The user has been granted read/write permission directly on the view object.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What contains the minimum required access permissions to create a cube?
A. CREATE for Views, Cubes, and Dimensions, CREATE for Lookup Tables and Data Streams, and
READ-ONLY for an existing View
B. CREATE for Views, Cubes, and Dimensions, CREATE for Lookup Tables and Data Streams, and
READ-ONLY for the dimensions to include in the cube
C. CREATE for Views, Cubes, and Dimensions, READ-ONLY for an existing View, and READONLY for
the dimensions to include in the cube
D. CREATE for Views, Cubes and Dimensions, and READ-ONLY for an existing View
Answer: C

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