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Code d'Examen: 1Z1-465
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle RightNow CX Cloud Service 2012 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Your customer has requested their salesman to update record in this custom object.
What two settings in the "Salesmen" profile have to be updated to allow them access?
A. Contacts Tab: Select the Edit check box for Sales.
B. Custom Objects Tab: select the Read check box for package Name "CO" and object Name
"Salesman".
C. Service Tab: select the Add/Edit check box for incidents.
D. Custom Objects Tab: select the update check box for package Name "CO" and object name
"Salesmen"
E. Add a workspace for the Salesmen custom object.
F. Sales Tab: select the Edit check box opportunities.
G. Update the workspace for Opportunities.
Answer: D,E

Oracle   1Z1-465 examen   1Z1-465

NO.2 When an incident is opened, your customer would like to have different workspaces open
based on the six products that can be selected when an incident is submitted from the Ask A
Question customer portal page.
When designing the workflow used to complete this requirement, which three elements are
necessary?
A. Entry Point
B. Load
C. Set Fields
D. Decision
E. Workspace
Answer: B,D,E

Oracle   1Z1-465   1Z1-465   1Z1-465 examen

NO.3 Your customer has asked you to create a report that shows all incidents opened within the
past month.
The report should show the following columns:
-Numberofincidents opened inthepast month
-Numberofincidents opened in the pastweek
-Numberofincidents openedin the pastday
Which two functions are needed in the expressions to create the three columns?
A. NVL
B. AVG
C. IF
D. DECODE
E. SUM
Answer: C,E

certification Oracle   1Z1-465 examen   1Z1-465   1Z1-465   1Z1-465
Explanation:
Incorrect:
Not A:In Oracle/PLSQL, the NVL function lets you substitute a value when a null value is
encountered.
Not D:DECODEcomparesexprto eachsearchvalue one by one. Ifexpris equal to asearch, then Oracle
Database returns the correspondingresult. If no match is found, then Oracle returnsdefault.
If default is omitted, then Oracle returns null.

NO.4 Identify the seven data types that are available as custom fields.
A. Text Area
B. Integer
C. Date Field
D. Currency
E. Date/Time
F. Text Field
G. Yes/No
H. Menu
I. Float
J. Multi Select Menu
Answer: B,C,D,E,F,G,I

Oracle   1Z1-465   1Z1-465

NO.5 Identify the three options available on the deployment screen in customer portal.
A. Rollback
B. Stage
C. Develop
D. Production
E. Promote
Answer: A,B,E

Oracle   1Z1-465   certification 1Z1-465   1Z1-465

NO.6 Your customer has performed a search on the knowledgebase and has stated that they are
getting strange results. Every time they search for the word "widget" the correct answer appears as
the 10th answer on the search results and not at the top of the first page.
How can you increase the value of the word "widget" In the knowledgebase search results?
A. Assign all products and categories to the knowledgebase answer.
B. Set the display position to "Fix at top."
C. Set the display position to "Place at top."
D. Add the search term to the keyword field of the knowledgebase answer.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z1-465 examen   1Z1-465 examen   certification 1Z1-465
Explanation:
Incorrect: Not B: would ensure that widget would always be at the top over every list, but the value
of the word would not be affected.

NO.7 Identify the four guidelines that are relevant with regard to web accessibility.
A. Support increased text sizes.
B. Ensure color alone is not used to convey content.
C. Avoid background sound.
D. Ensure no underlined content exists.
E. Provide multiple methods for finding content.
F. Ensure all alternate text is unused.
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.8 You customer has added a new interface and requests that you set up three navigation sets
and associate them with three profiles.
You log in with your original credentials and add the navigation sets.
When you edit the profile and select the dropdown for the new navigation set you don't see the
navigation sets you just added.
Why can't you see the navigation set that should be displayed?
A. The profile doesn't have permission to the new interface.
B. You forgot to set the permission in the navigation set for the new interface.
C. The interface was not installed correctly.
D. You added the navigation set in the wrong interface.
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z1-465   1Z1-465   1Z1-465 examen   1Z1-465 examen
Explanation:
Note:
*Navigation sets and custom workspaces are associated with profiles. A Profile has to have a Default
Navigation Set.
*The following items must be created before adding profiles.
Navigation sets. Profiles without navigation sets do not allow access to reports and other
components Custom workspaces (optional). If you use custom workspaces, we recommend creating
them before creating profiles so you can assign workspaces to specific profiles.
*The configuration tasks required when starting to use RightNow CX are:
Create Navigation Set
Create Workspace (optional)
Create Profile (associate Navigation Set and Workspace with the Profile)

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NO.1 Which situations would result in errors when executing a ReclassifyObjectAction on an object?
(Choose two)
A. No new classifiers are supplied.
B. A new classifier is an abstract class.
C. The old and new classifiers are identical.
D. All classifiers are removed from the object.
E. A new classifier already classifies the object.
F. An old classifier does not already classify the object.
Answer: BD

OMG   UM0-300   UM0-300   UM0-300

NO.2 What is wrong with the collaboration occurrence shown in the exhibit?
A. The <<role>> keywords are missing.
B. The <<occurrence>> keyword is missing.
C. Client and Server role names should be underlined.
D. Role bindings should be represented by dashed lines.
E. The collaboration occurrence name should be underlined.
Answer: D

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NO.3 By what means can a design document be associated with the component it describes? (Choose
three)
A. import
B. inheritance
C. ownership
D. dependency
E. power types
F. association end subsets
Answer: ACD

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NO.4 Which action does NOT require classifiers as static inputs?
A. ReadExtentAction
B. CreateObjectAction
C. ReclassifyObjectAction
D. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
E. ReadIsClassifiedObjectAction
Answer: D

OMG   UM0-300   UM0-300

NO.5 How is a power type indicated in a diagram?
A. as a classifier labeled <<powerType>>
B. as an association line labeled <<powerType>>
C. as a generalization set labeled <<powerType>>
D. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by a classifier name
E. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by the label <<powerType>>
Answer: D

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NO.6 What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
A. p is a hidden port.
B. p is a behavior port.
C. p is a port providing a system service.
D. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is a power type?
A. classifier containing a very large number of instances
B. classifier whose instances are objects of another classifier
C. classifier whose instances are operations of another classifier
D. classifier whose instances are subclasses of another classifier
Answer: D

OMG   UM0-300   UM0-300   UM0-300

NO.8 What happens to the exception from a RaiseExceptionAction when used in a model that has no
exception parameters declared?
A. ignored
B. handled by a default handler
C. appended to an exception log
D. sent to the "ExceptionManager" object
E. propagated to an enclosing protected node, if any
Answer: E

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NO.9 What does a port specification on a trigger do?
A. send a request to a port
B. create a new port after a classifier has been instantiated
C. restrict the trigger to events arriving through a specific port
D. delay the creation of the parts of an encapsulated classifier until a specified request is received
Answer: C

OMG examen   UM0-300   UM0-300

NO.10 An employee inadvertently removed all of the ownedMembers of the new BoosterMotor component
from his company's development repository. The next day, the manager was unable to find some pieces
of the BoosterMotor component's specification. What pieces could the manager no longer find? (Choose
two)
A. failure mode use cases
B. the component repository
C. test scripts for the rocket sled simulation
D. the launch assembly housing the BoosterMotor
E. the component's isIndirectlyInstantiated attribute
Answer: AC

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NO.11 What is the correct interpretation for the multiplicities in the exhibit?
A. each Company has one Job, where each Job has one employee
B. each Job is for one employer and one employee, each Company has any number of employees and
each Person has any number of employers
C. each Person has at most one Job for any number of Company objects and each Company has at most
one Job for any number of Person objects
D. each Job has any number of employers and any number of employees, each Company has any
number of employees, and each Person has any number of employers
Answer: B

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NO.12 When a component is deleted, what happens to objects in a component's namespace?
A. objects are deleted
B. objects continue to exist
C. only those objects that participate in shared aggregations are retained
D. contents of the component's namespace are promoted to its superclass
Answer: A

OMG   UM0-300 examen   UM0-300

NO.13 What characteristics of components best enable them to be used to represent diverse and
"large-scale" aspects of information processing environments?
A. black-box semantics
B. ports, parts, and interfaces
C. duality of association ends and attributes
D. ownership of potentially large numbers of model elements
Answer: D

OMG examen   certification UM0-300   certification UM0-300

NO.14 What does a collaboration occurrence describe?
A. a particular aspect of a collaboration
B. an object that is an instance of a collaboration
C. a collaboration that contains a set of actual instances (as opposed to roles)
D. the instantiation of the pattern specified by the corresponding collaboration
Answer: D

OMG   UM0-300   UM0-300   certification UM0-300

NO.15 What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports?
A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
C. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
D. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
E. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the request.
Answer: A

OMG   UM0-300 examen   UM0-300

NO.16 In the exhibit, how many links are created by default when an instance of A is created?
A. two
B. four
C. eight
D. none
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which action can continue to be enabled after it executes?
A. ReplyAction
B. ReadExtentAction
C. AcceptEventAction
D. BroadcastSignalAction
E. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
Answer: C

OMG examen   UM0-300   UM0-300   UM0-300 examen   UM0-300 examen   UM0-300

NO.18 A ReplyAction always follows what action?
A. ReadExtentAction
B. AcceptCallAction
C. AcceptEventAction
D. CreateLinkObjectAction
E. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
Answer: B

certification OMG   UM0-300 examen   UM0-300

NO.19 Which stereotype is used on a dashed arrow joining an instance value to a constructor?
A. <<new>>
B. <<make>>
C. <<create>>
D. <<construct>>
E. <<initialize>>
Answer: C

certification OMG   certification UM0-300   UM0-300

NO.20 An association class possesses the properties of which elements? (Choose two)
A. class
B. interface
C. constraint
D. expression
E. association
Answer: AE

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Code d'Examen: OMG-OCUP-300
Nom d'Examen: OMG (OMG-Certified UML Professional Advanced Exam)
Questions et réponses: 134 Q&As

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NO.1 When a component is deleted, what happens to objects in a component's namespace?
A. objects are deleted
B. only those objects that participate in shared aggregations are retained
C. objects continue to exist
D. contents of the component's namespace are promoted to its superclass
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is true about a model in UML 2.0?
A. cannot contain another model
B. can represent only software systems
C. is a kind of package
D. is a kind of component
E. can represent all system structures
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which UML 2.0 Superstructure package reuses the InfrastructureLibrary package?
A. Classes::Core
B. CompositeStructures::Core
C. Structures::Kernel
D. Classes::Kernel
E. Kernel::Classes
Answer: D

OMG examen   OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300

NO.4 What is true about an InformationItem in UML 2.0?
A. is not an abstraction
B. can have generalization
C. can have associations
D. is not instantiable
E. can have features
Answer: D

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NO.5 A ReplyAction always follows what action?
A. AcceptCallAction
B. AcceptEventAction
C. ReadExtentAction
D. CreateLinkObjectAction
E. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
Answer: A

OMG examen   OMG-OCUP-300   certification OMG-OCUP-300

NO.6 What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports.?
A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
C. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
D. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
E. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the request.
Answer: A

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NO.7 In the exhibit, what is NOT true of ReclassifyObjectAction?
A. It has an output pin providing exactly one object.
B. It refers to any number of old classifiers.
C. It refers to any number of new classifiers.
D. It has an input pin taking exactly one object.
E. The default value for replacing all old classifiers is false.
Answer: A

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NO.8 The OCL dot operator may NOT traverse which classifier property?
A. operations
B. association ends
C. queries
D. attributes
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is wrong in this deployment diagram exhibit? (Choose two)
A. Icons are swapped.
B. Interface on Order should point up.
C. <<manifest>> arrow should have a dashed line.
D. <<manifest>> arrowhead should be hollow.
E. <<manifest>> arrowhead should be solid.
Answer: A,C

OMG examen   OMG-OCUP-300   certification OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300 examen

NO.10 Which stereotype CANNOT be used to elaborate the semantic intent of an Artifact instance?
A. <<library>>
B. <<executable>>
C. <<script>>
D. <<source>>
E. <<specification>>
Answer: E

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NO.11 What is a protocol of an interface?
A. procedure that implements the communications-based behavioral features of the interface
B. kind of behavior that describes the implementation of the object that realizes the interface
C. kind of state machine that defines ordering constraints on the behavioral features of the interface
D. interaction specification associated with the interface
Answer: C

OMG   OMG-OCUP-300 examen   OMG-OCUP-300

NO.12 Which statements are true about OCL? (Choose three)
A. OCL is a query language.
B. OCL is a programming and procedural language.
C. OCL is a typed language.
D. OCL is a procedural language.
E. OCL is a specification language.
F. OCL is a programming language.
Answer: A,C,E

OMG examen   OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300

NO.13 What are the ways that the UML metamodel reuses the InfrastructureLibrary package? (Choose two)
A. specializes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
B. stereotypes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
C. exports and generalizes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
D. imports and specializes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
E. is instantiated from meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
Answer: D,E

OMG   OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300 examen

NO.14 In the exhibit, how many links are created by default when an instance of A is created?
A. two
B. four
C. none
D. eight
Answer: B

OMG examen   OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300

NO.15 What does the protocol conformance between two protocol state machines mean?
A. the specific state machine must abide by the behavior of the general state machine
B. all triggers in the two protocol state machines must be the same
C. the two protocol state machines must be the same
D. the general state machine must abide by the behavior of the specific state machine
E. the specific state machine must have the same number of states and transitions as the general
machine
Answer: A

OMG   certification OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300 examen

NO.16 What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
A. p is a hidden port.
B. p is a behavior port.
C. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
D. p is a port providing a system service.
Answer: A

OMG examen   certification OMG-OCUP-300   certification OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300

NO.17 How can UML be extended? (Choose two)
A. using Interface Definition Library (IDL)
B. using the Object Constraint Language (OCL)
C. using XML Metadata Interchange (XMI)
D. using profiles
E. reusing part of the UML infrastructure library and augmenting it with metaclasses and relationships
Answer: D,E

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NO.18 What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
A. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
B. p is a port providing a system service.
C. p is a hidden port.
D. p is a behavior port.
Answer: C

OMG examen   certification OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300 examen   OMG-OCUP-300

NO.19 In planning to describe (in UML) a middleware software package, a company recently acquired, which
class is most likely created to describe the package itself?
A. Manifestation
B. Device
C. DeploymentSpecification
D. ExecutionEnvironment
E. Artifact
Answer: D

OMG   OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300 examen   OMG-OCUP-300

NO.20 What determines which value an object flow edge chooses to move from the source? (Choose two)
A. transformation
B. upper bound
C. ordering
D. effect
E. weight
F. selection
Answer: D,F

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Code d'Examen: C_THR12_65
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Human Capital Management with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer asks you to configure an average calculation rule for hourly workers. The rule
should
determine an average daily overtime rate derived from all overtime earned during the previous
three months. Any retroactive changes in pay should be included.
What do you have to include in the configuration of the rule? (Choose three.)
A. Final processing rule
B. Cumulation rule
C. Time wage type selection rule
D. Adjustment rule
E. Processing class 01 rule
Answer: A,B,D

SAP   C_THR12_65   C_THR12_65
5. A customer is concerned that WPBP splits on the IT input table may lead to overpayments.
What explanations do you provide to address their concerns? (Choose two.)
A. WPBP splits occur when an employee enters or leaves the company during a pay period. They
are used to prorate their pay accordingly.
B. WPBP splits occur when an employee's organizational assignment changes. They are used to
allocate personnel costs to the correct cost center.
C. WPBP splits occur when an employee's address changes during a pay period. They are used
to allocate benefit deductions to the correct provider.
D. WPBP splits occur when an employee's bank information changes during a pay period. They
are used to allocate payments to the correct account.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 A customer wants to use the same wage type for a special payment such as hazardous pay and
have the rate vary by personnel area.
What do you have to configure?
A. Modif W and the table V_T539J (Base wage type valuation)
B. Modif 4 and the table V_T510S (Time wage type selection)
C. Modif 2 and the table V_T510J (Constant valuations)
D. Modif A and the table V_T554C (Absence valuation)
Answer: C

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NO.3 Your customer wants to automate off-cycle payroll tasks such as printing forms, execution of
posting run, and printing checks.
Which tool is best suited for this?
A. Payroll control record
B. Off-Cycle Workbench
C. HR Process Workbench
D. Interface Toolbox
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer continues to pay some employees for a period of time after they are terminated.
These
employees should also be processed in retro calculation runs.
What do you recommend?
A. Terminate the employee with the future date up to which you want to continue regular
processing and use the payroll driver to force any retro runs.
B. Terminate the employee and enter the date up to which you want to continue processing payroll
in the Accounted to field on IT0003.
C. Terminate the employee and enter the date up to which you want to continue processing payroll
in the Run Payroll up to field on IT0003.
D. Terminate the employee with the future date up to which you want to continue payroll
processing so they are included in regular and retro runs.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C-BOE-30
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.x)
Questions et réponses: 239 Q&As

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NO.1 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server
take when the
Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server
(FRS)
Answer: B

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NO.2 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter
(WCA)?
(Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server?
(Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose
four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.5 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space
required for the drive
holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB
C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C

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NO.6 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes
scheduled List of
Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
Answer: B

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NO.7 Where does the Web Intelligence Report Server send a Web Intelligence Report after
it generates the
report to make it available to users on demand?
A. Web Intelligence Job Server
B. Output File Repository Server (FRS)
C. Web Application Server (WAS)
D. Report Application Server (RAS)
Answer: C

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NO.8 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central
Management
Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.9 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise
infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal
Reports Job
Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups?
(Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object?
(Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.13 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from
the initial Install
type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.14 In which two locations can you create List of Values (LOV) objects? (Choose two.)
A. Business View Manager
B. Crystal Reports
C. Central Management Console
D. List of Values Job Server
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You
want to add another
Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports Job Server
service. Using
the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager, which three tasks must you
perform.?
(Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.16 Which characteristic of the Web Intelligence Job Server enables it to provide stability
and efficiency for
running large or complex reports?
A. Runs jobs as individual processes
B. Runs jobs using a sync-safe threads
C. Uses them ark-and-sweep garbage collection algorithm
D. Uses hash tables and smart pointers
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of
the
Desktop Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which three .NET InfoView login page properties can you configure? (Choose three.)
A. Central Management Server (CMS) name that shows on the login page
B. Default user name that appears on the login page
C. Application name that appears in the title bar of the web browser
D. Authentication type that displays on the login page
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.19 You design a Crystal Report on your own computer. The report connects to an Oracle
database using
ODBC. You wish to publish the report to your BusinessObjects Enterprise environment to
enable users to
view it on demand. Which are requirements for viewing the report on demand? (Choose two.)
A. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on
the report
designer s machine.
B. The Crystal Reports Job Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on
the report
designer s machine.
C. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on
the report
designer s machine.
D. The Crystal Job Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on the
report
designer s machine.
Answer: A,B

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NO.20 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from
running on-demand
reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C-TSCM42-64
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer has been using planning strategies 30 (production by lots) and 10 (anonymous
maketo-stock production) in SAP ECC. The customer wishes to move in part to planning strategy 40
(planning with final assembly). The issue of consumption has an effect here for the first time.
Which properties apply for consumption with planning strategy 40? (Choose two.)
A. Consumption can lead to an increase of the originally planned overall production quantity.
B. Consumption can result in the subsequent specification and adjustment of planning elements in
terms of quantity and date, by means of customer orders that arrive.
C. Consumption can reduce the originally planned production quantity.
D. Consumption creates a static and binding assignment, between the planned independent
requirements recorded in advance and the customer requirements that arrive, for the entire
procurement process.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Which one of the following scheduling types cannot be assigned as default to an order type
(production order)?
A. Midpoint
B. Forward
C. Only capacity requirements
D. Backward
Answer: A

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NO.3 An enterprise based in the USA produces an end product that is used with the unit of
measure"pound" (LB). The material is now to be marketed in the EU. A prerequisite for this is that
the material can be sold with the unit kilogram (KG).
Which of the following solutions does SAP ECC offer?
A. In the basic data customizing, you create a unit of measure group that converts pounds to
kilograms. You then assign this to the material master on basic data view 1.
B. You create a new material with a reference to the original material and assign the metric unit of
measure to the new material master.
C. In the material master, you create a conversion factor for converting pounds to kilograms on
basic data view 1.
D. There is no need to take any action. There is a general conversion in the central customizing of
units of measurements, so that automatic conversion of pounds to kilograms takes place.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following requirements for a manufacturing plant can be supported by using
process
manufacturing? (Choose three.)
A. Master recipe-based manufacturing.
B. Material requirements planning for production resources.
C. Manufacturing without orders.
D. Variable calculation of material quantities (product output, material usage).
E. Manufacturing in charge quantities.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.5 Which of the following activities is necessary for the capacity availability check to be carried
out automatically when a production order is released?
A. Activate the availability check and assign a checking rule to the work center for the operation to
be checked.
B. Activate the availability check and assign the check control to the plant.
C. Activate the availability check and assign an overall profile in check control for the business
function order release.
D. Activate the availability check and assign an availability checking group to the material master
for the product to be produced.
Answer: C

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NO.6 In your company planning strategies are used in the SAP-ECC demand management that are
based on consumption. Which of the following statements about consumption is true? (Choose
two.)
A. A consumption situation is dynamic and is always restructured with the planning run.
B. Consumption can also take place between order reservations and planned independent
requirements, depending on the strategy.
C. Consumption always takes place on the material level between the planned independent
requirements and the planned orders.
D. The consumption parameters (consumption mode and consumption interval) can be set in the
material master or in the MRP group.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 The master data for an in-house production process is to be set up in the SAP ECC system. To
do this, you should create a suitable routing that plans for five operations in an initial sequence
(10,20, 30, 40, 50). There should be an option of relocating operations 30 and 40 to a second
sequence on other work centers if there are capacity bottlenecks. What sequence type would you
use to create the second sequence in the system?
A. Substitute sequence
B. Alternative sequence
C. Parallel sequence
D. Standard sequence
Answer: B

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NO.8 The company that you advise does not want to manage certain value-intensive materials in
the warehouse stock. Instead, the user wishes to control material provision in such a way that these
materials are procured directly for the production and/or process order. How can you fulfill this
request? (Choose two.)
A. Using the special procurement key subcontracting in the material master for the component
B. Using the special procurement key direct procurement/external procurement in the material
master for the component
C. Using the item type non-stock item in the bill of material for the material in question
D. Using the procurement type external procurement in the material master for the component
E. Controlling the material in question as a co-product
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 In the SAP ECC system, a material is produced with the help of production orders. Though
originally used for rate-based planning only, the planning table is to be used to plan this material.
On the initial screen of the planning table, you select this material and then receive a message
informing you that you cannot use the planning table for this material.
Which one of the following reasons for this message applies?
A. The series production indicator has not been set.
B. There is no valid production version for this material.
C. There are no planned orders or production orders present.
D. There are no requirements present.
Answer: B

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NO.10 The user you advise requests that you make it possible for the user to produce materials for
stock,for customer orders, projects, orders and cost centers with production orders.
Where can you make settings to ensure these options?
A. Serial number profile.
B. Settlement profile.
C. Valuation variant.
D. Production scheduling profile.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: P-ADM-SEC-70
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Technology Professional - Security with SAP NetWeaver 7.0)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 When you use the Central User Administration (CUA), when will your changes to user
data become
effective in the child systems? Please also consider the options that the Application Link
Enabling
technology (ALE) offers.
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Changes are replicated immediately.
B. The changes can be replicated by the background job "CUA_Distribute" in the central
system.
C. The IDocs that transport the changes to the user master data in the child systems can be
collected and
transferred at a later time, triggered by a background job.
D. The changes can be replicated by selecting the button "Distribute all data" in transaction
SCUA.
E. The data for CUA will be replicated to the child systems every 60 minutes if no other
setting/configuration overrides this default value.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 The SAP Web dispatcher gets information about the application servers and groups
required for load
distribution from the message server and application servers. HTTP is used for this
communication.
You want to change this communication to HTTPS.
Which of the following statements are true?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The SAP Web Dispatcher must be set up for Secure Socket Layer (SSL).
B. The message server must be set up for Secure Socket Layer (SSL).
C. The internal group: !DIAGS must be empty.
D. The SAP Web Dispatcher must be able to accept the server certificates from the message
server.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 When is it acceptable not to take action on an identified risk?
A. Never. Good security has to address and reduce all risks.
B. When political issues prevent this type of risk from being addressed.
C. When the necessary countermeasure is too complex.
D. When the cost of the countermeasure outweighs the value of the asset and the potential
loss.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements regarding load balancers are true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. With a reverse proxy, you can route incoming requests to different services based on the
URL path.
B. The SAP Web Dispatcher is a full-fledged reverse proxy.
C. The SAP Web Dispatcher uses SAP Logon Groups in Enterprise Portal scenarios.
D. You can administer the SAP Web Dispatcher using transaction: WEBDISP.
E. You can combine the SAP Web Dispatcher and web switches in the demilitarized zone
(DMZ).
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 Which of the following statements regarding regulations is false?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. SOX (Sarbanes-Oxley Act) is a binding regulation for companies traded at the US stock
market.
B. ITIL (IT Infrastructure Library) represents a universally applicable framework for optimum
handling of
processes in IT management.
C. The focus of CobiT (Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology) is on
auditors, not on
IT management and IT end users.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which of the following statements regarding the SAP Security Optimization Service are
true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. It is a local service offered by the SAP Solution Manager.
B. The service can be performed at any time.
C. All checks are automated for the service.
D. The service focuses on internal and external system security.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Which of the following authentication mechanisms are available for SAP NetWeaver AS
Java.?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Security session IDs for Single Sign-On between applications
B. SAP Logon Tickets for Single Sign-On
C. SAML Assertions for Single Sign-On
D. Web Dynpro for Single Sign-On
E. Kerberos Authentication for Single Sign-On
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Which of the following statements regarding SSO and SAP Logon Tickets are true?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Users have the same user ID and password in all of the systems they access using SAP
Logon
Tickets.
B. The end users' Web browsers accept cookies (SAP GUI not in use).
C. The clocks for the accepting systems are synchronized with the ticket-issuing system.
D. The SSO ticket is issued after successful login to the SAP NetWeaver AS Java.
E. The cookie is stored in the temporary folder of the local GUI.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.9 After the installation of SAP Web Dispatcher you want to create additional users to
administer SAP
Web Dispatcher. Where are these users stored?
A. In the table USR02 in AS ABAP.
B. In the local database of SAP Web Dispatcher.
C. In the filesystem.
D. In the table WEBDISP_USER in AS Java.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following considerations are important if a customer plans to use the
Internet Connection
Manager (ICM) in SAP NetWeaver AS 7.0, together with Microsoft Internet Explorer? Note:
There are 2
correct answers to this question.
A. The use of the TCP/IP ports must be agreed with the security/network department.
B. The location of the SAP NetWeaver AS 7.0 within the network topology must be agreed
with the
network department.
C. The SAP Gateway Port 3300 must be taken into consideration for the ICM.
Answer: A,B

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NO.11 Which areas in the SAP environment does the SAP Security Optimization Self Service
check?
A. SAPouttab (SAPRouter)
B. WGate and AGate configuration (SAP ITS)
C. SSL check for the SAP J2EE Engine
D. Customized settings in the NW AS ABAP environment
Answer: C

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NO.12 A customer uses an LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol ) enabled directory
server. To simplify
the administration of SAP users, Central User Administration (CUA) was introduced. Now
there are plans
to synchronize the LDAP enabled directory server with the CUA. Which of the following
statements are
true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. The SAP user field: BNAME is already a standard for most of the LDAP enabled directory
server.
Therefore the field mappings can be easily customized.
B. The synchronization of fields can be controlled via a mapping transaction in SAP ABAP.
C. A prerequisite for the communication between the CUA and the LDAP enabled directory
server is to
open the LDAP(s) port in the firewall environment, if a firewall is used.
D. The communication between LDAP and the CUA is based on PI 7.1. Therefore, SAP
specific PI
adapter ports must be open in the firewall environment.
E. A SAPROUTER must be used to establish the proper connection between the SAP CUA
and the LDAP
provider.
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 Which of the following is not a fundamental part of a Regulatory Security Policy?
A. Why is it being done?
B. What is to be done?
C. When it is to be done?
D. Who is supposed to do it?
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following is a characteristic of the Segregation of Duties (SOD) principle?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. The SOD principle is a preventive control.
B. The SOD principle is a detective control.
C. Enforcing the SOD principle means that no single individual can carry out a critical task
that could
prove to be corruptive to the company.
D. Enforcing the SOD principle means that individuals are capable of performing the tasks for
different
roles, rather than depending on just one individual.
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 Which of the following authentication mechanisms is not accepted by SAP NetWeaver
Portal 7.0?
A. SAML Assertions
B. User ID / password
C. X.509 client certificates
D. SNC based authentication
E. Web Access Management (WAM) products
Answer: D

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