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Code d'Examen: 250-311
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 for Windows)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 The Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager supports the use of which database solutions?
(Choose two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2000
B. MySQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
D. Oracle Database 11g
E. Oracle Database 9i
Answer: AC

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NO.2 Lifeline Supply Company found during a recent audit that the current security solution for
theirdesktops and servers missed several rootkitswithin their environment. These rootkits have
compromised several company computers.
Which protection technology in Symantec Endpoint Protection could remediate these rootkits?
A. Host Integrity
B. Antivirus and Antispyware Protection
C. Network Threat Protection
D. Application and Device Control
Answer: B

Symantec   250-311   certification 250-311   250-311 examen

NO.3 Where can you edit a non-shared policy?
A. Clients
B. Monitors
C. Home
D. Admin
Answer: A

certification Symantec   250-311   certification 250-311   certification 250-311

NO.4 Which Network Threat Protection technologies of the SymantecEndpoint Protection client provide the
primary protection layers against network attacks?
A. ProactiveThreat Protection and Network Access Control
B. ProactiveThreat Protection and Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention and Client Firewall
D. Client Firewall and Network Access Control
Answer: C

Symantec   250-311   250-311 examen

NO.5 THE DISCLOSURE TO YOU OF THIS EXAMINATION ("THEEXAM") AND ANY
ACCOMPANYING EXAMINATION MATERIALS AND ANY DERIVATIVES THEREOF
(COLLECTIVELY REFERRED TO AS THE "EXAM MATERIALS") IS SUBJECT TO THE
TERMSAND CONDITIONS OF THE SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY
AGREEMENT PROVIDED HEREIN. BY CLICKING ON THE "START" BUTTON IN
RESPONSE TO THE ACCEPTANCE QUERY, OR BY OTHERWISE TAKING THE
EXAMINATION, YOU ARE CONSENTING TO BE BOUND BY THIS AGREEMENT. BY
CLICKING ON THE "EXIT" BUTTON, YOU CHOOSE NOT TO AGREE AND WILL BE LET OUT OF THE
EXAM.
IF THESE TERMSARE CONSIDERED AN OFFER, ACCEPTANCE IS EXPRESSLY
LIMITED TO THESE TERMS.
SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY AGREEMENT
This is an agreement ("Agreement") between You and Symantec Corporation that sets forth the terms and
conditions of your use and disclosure of the Exam Materials.
You hereby understand, acknowledge, and agree:
1.That Symantec Corporation spends substantial sums of time and money in developing and
administering its Exam Materials and labs and carefully guards their integrity and
confidentiality;
2.That the questions and answers of the Exam are the exclusiveand confidential property of Symantec
Corporation and are protected by Symantec Corporation's intellectual property rights;
3.That You may not disclose the Exam questions or answers or discuss any of the content of the Exam
Materials with any person, without prior written approval of Symantec Corporation;
4.Not toremovefromtheexamination roomany ExamMaterialsof any kind providedto Youor
any other material related to the Exam, including, without limitation, any notes or calculations;
5.Not to copy or attempt to make copies (written, photocopied, or otherwise) of any Exam
Material, including, without limitation, any exam questions or answers;
6.Not to sell, license, distribute, giveaway, or obtain from any other source other Symantec Corporation
the Exam materials, questions or Answers.
You hereby acknowledge and agree that violation of any of these provisions will cause
irreparable harm to Symantec Corporation for which monetary remedies may be inadequate, and that
Symantec Corporation shall be entitled, without waiving any other rights or remedies, to take all
appropriate actions to remedy or prevent such disclosure or misuse, including obtaining an immediate
injunction. Neither this Agreement nor any right granted hereunder shallbe assignable or otherwise
transferableby You. ThisAgreement maybe modifiedonlyby a writing signed by both parties. This
Agreement shall be construed in accordance with the laws of the State of California, without giving effect
to any choice of law rule. This Agreement represents the entire Agreement of the parties hereto pertaining
to the subject matter of this
Agreement, and supersedes any and all prior oral discussions and/or written correspondence or
agreements between the parties with respect thereto.
If you ACCEPT the termsand conditions of this Agreement, click 'Yes, I agree.', and begin this exam. If
you DO NOT ACCEPT this Agreement, you must click 'No, I do not agree.', and will not be able to proceed
with this exam.
Answer.pending

NO.6 What are the three configurable actions in TruScan ProactiveThreat Scan? (Choose three.)
A. log suspect process only
B. set a public SNMP trap
C. quarantine suspect process
D. terminate the suspect process
E. generate dump of system state
F. suspend the suspect process
Answer: ACD

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NO.7 A company has a large sales force who travel with laptops. They want to block USB
access on the laptops when they are disconnected from the corporate network.
Which two things are required to achievethis? (Choose two.)
A. multiple sites
B. multiple locations
C. firewall policy
D. device control policy
E. host integrity policy
Answer: BD

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NO.8 A computer is configured in Mixed Control mode. The administrator creates and applies a firewall policy
to the computer that has a rule that allows FTP trafficabove the blue line and another rule that blocks
LDAP traffic below the blue line. On the computer, local rules are created to allow LDAP trafficand block
FTP.
Which traffic flow behavior should be expected on the local computer?
A. Both FTP and LDAP trafficare allowed.
B. Both FTP and LDAP trafficare blocked.
C. FTP is blocked and LDAP is allowed.
D. FTP is allowed and LDAP is blocked.
Answer: A

certification Symantec   250-311 examen   certification 250-311   250-311 examen

NO.9 Which label is given to a program or algorithm that replicates itself overa computer
network and usually performs malicious actions?
A. virus
B. zero-day exploit
C. spam
D. worm
Answer: D

Symantec   250-311   250-311 examen   250-311

NO.10 THE DISCLOSURE TO YOU OF THIS EXAMINATION ("THE EXAM") AND ANY
ACCOMPANYING EXAMINATION MATERIALS AND ANY DERIVATIVES THEREOF
(COLLECTIVELY REFERRED TO AS THE "EXAM MATERIALS") IS SUBJECT TO THE
TERMSAND CONDITIONS OF THE SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY
AGREEMENT PROVIDED HEREIN. BY CLICKING ON THE "START" BUTTON IN
RESPONSE TO THE ACCEPTANCE QUERY, OR BY OTHERWISE TAKING THE
EXAMINATION, YOU ARE CONSENTING TO BE BOUND BY THIS AGREEMENT. BY
CLICKING ON THE "EXIT" BUTTON, YOU CHOOSE NOT TO AGREE AND WILL BE LET OUT OF THE
EXAM.
IF THESE TERMSARE CONSIDERED AN OFFER, ACCEPTANCE IS EXPRESSLY
LIMITED TO THESE TERMS.
SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY AGREEMENT
This is an agreement ("Agreement") between You and Symantec Corporation that sets forth the terms and
conditions of your use and disclosure of the Exam Materials.
You hereby understand, acknowledge, and agree:
1.That Symantec Corporation spends substantial sums of time and money in developing and
administering its Exam Materials and labs and carefully guards their integrity and
confidentiality;
2.That the questions and answers of the Exam are the exclusiveand confidential property of Symantec
Corporation and are protected by Symantec Corporation's intellectual property rights;
3.That You may not disclose the Exam questions or answers or discuss any of the content of the Exam
Materials with any person, without prior written approval of Symantec Corporation;
4.Not toremovefromtheexamination roomany ExamMaterialsof any kind providedto Youor
any other material related to the Exam, including, without limitation, any notes or calculations;
5.Not to copy or attempt to make copies (written, photocopied, or otherwise) of any Exam
Material, including, without limitation, any exam questions or answers;
6.Not to sell, license, distribute, giveaway, or obtain from any other source other Symantec
Corporation the Exam materials, questions or answers.
You hereby acknowledge and agree that violation of any of these provisions will cause
irreparable harm to Symantec Corporation for which monetary remedies may be inadequate, and that
Symantec Corporation shall be entitled, without waiving any other rights or remedies, to take all
appropriate actions to remedy or prevent such disclosure or misuse, including obtaining an immediate
injunction. Neither this Agreement nor any right granted hereunder shallbe assignable or otherwise
transferableby You. ThisAgreement maybe modifiedonlyby a writing signed by both parties. This
Agreement shall be construed in accordance with the laws of the State of California, without giving effect
to any choice of law rule. This Agreement represents the entire Agreement of the parties hereto pertaining
to the subject matter of this Agreement, and supersedes any and all prior oral discussions and/or written
correspondence or agreements between the parties with respect thereto. If you ACCEPT the termsand
conditions of this Agreement, click 'Yes, I agree.', and begin this exam. If you DO NOT ACCEPT this
Agreement, you must click 'No, I do not agree.', and will not be able to proceed with this exam.
Answer. pending

NO.11 An administrator believes that client computers are running different software versions of Symantec
Endpoint Protection.
Which report type shows which client computers are running different software versions?
A. Application and Device Control Report
B. System Report
C. Compliance Report
D. Computer Status Report
Answer: D

Symantec   250-311   certification 250-311   certification 250-311

NO.12 Which page is used to create login accounts to the Symantec Endpoint Protection
Manager console?
A. Policies
B. Home
C. Admin
D. Clients
Answer: A

Symantec   250-311   certification 250-311

NO.13 Which fivecomponents are incorporated in Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Choose five.)
A. antispam
B. application and device control
C. full disk encryption
D. host integrity
E. antivirus
F. antispyware
G. content filtering
H. intrusion prevention
I. client firewall
J. asset management
Answer: BEFHI

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NO.14 Refer to the exhibit.
Inheritance is turned on for groups LLSCO, Group A, Laptops, and Group 2 (outlined).
Without turning inheritance off, which top level group must be modified to affect users in the Laptop
group?
A. Desktops
B. Laptops
C. Group 1
D. Group A
Answer: C

certification Symantec   certification 250-311   certification 250-311   250-311

NO.15 What controls access from one network segment to another?
A. hub
B. MTA
C. sensor
D. firewall
Answer: D

Symantec   250-311   250-311   250-311

NO.16 In the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console, where do you modifyreplication?
A. Admim > Servers > Server Properties > Directory Servers
B. Admin > Servers > Local Site > Replication Partner
C. Policies > Management Server Lists > Replication
D. Admin > Servers > Database > Tasks
Answer: B

Symantec   250-311   250-311   certification 250-311

NO.17 Which two statements are true about Symantec Endpoint Protection TruScan Proactive Threat Scan?
(Choose two.)
A. It inspects encrypted network traffic.
B. It evaluates process behavior.
C. It uses malicious code detection signatures.
D. It blocks attackers' IP addresses.
E.It detects unknown threats.
Answer: BE

Symantec   250-311 examen   250-311

NO.18 Lifeline Supply Company wants to reduce or eliminatethe HelpDesk callsthey receivedue to end users
modifying, moving, or deleting configuration files.
Which component of Symantec Endpoint Protection will allow the IT administrator to prevent users from
altering configuration files?
A. TruScan ProactiveThreat Scan
B. Device Control
C. Application Control
D. Host Integrity
Answer: C

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NO.19 The administrators at Lifeline Supply Company have a manufacturing facility that runs
three shifts. Employees at the facility must share computers. The administrators want the
ability to apply different policies/configurations for each shift.
How can the administrator configure the environment to allow policies to be applied to each shift?
(Choose two.)
A. create one group for all computers in the facility
B. create one group for all users in the facility
C. create one group for all computers on each shift
D. create one group for all users on each shift
E. switch the clients to computer mode
F. switch the clients to user mode
Answer: DF

Symantec   250-311   250-311

NO.20 What is one reason for disabling learned applications?
A. Learned applications can often expose usernames and passwords.
B. Learned applications require promiscuous mode.
C. Learned applications are often legitimate programs.
D. Learned applications are illegal in some countries.
Answer: D

Symantec   250-311 examen   250-311

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Code d'Examen: 250-265
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Data Protection Administration for UNIX(NBU 6.5))
Questions et réponses: 170 Q&As

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NO.1 The Inventory Robot function within the NetBackup Administration console is used to _____.
A.List ejected tapes
B.Delete bad media
C.Unfreeze frozen media
D.Update the volume configuration
Answer: D

Symantec   250-265   certification 250-265   250-265   250-265

NO.2 Which NetBackup process is responsible for reading data from the client during a backup?
A.bprd
B.bpcd
C.bpbkar32
D.bpbackup
Answer: C

Symantec examen   250-265   250-265

NO.3 Which statement is true about storage lifecycles?
A.Staged capacity managed retention is only available on disk storage units.
B.Backups are guaranteed to remain on the disk for the desired cache period.
C.Data classifications are required if backing up to tape storage units.
D.Backup types include backup, duplicate, and catalog.
Answer: A

Symantec examen   250-265   certification 250-265   250-265 examen

NO.4 Which processes can run on a media server? (Choose three.)
A.bpbrm
B.bpdm
C.bprd
D.bpdbm
E.bptm
Answer: ABE

Symantec   250-265   certification 250-265

NO.5 You are at a disaster recovery site, testing restores from your offsite duplicate tapes. To begin
performing restores, you must change the duplicate copies to be the primary copy.
Which commands can you use to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A.bprecover
B.bpchangeprimary
C.bpimage
D.bpexpdate
E.bprestore
Answer: BC

Symantec examen   250-265   certification 250-265   250-265 examen

NO.6 Which statements are true about installing multiple media servers? (Choose two.)
A.All media server installations require a server license key.
B.All media server installations must be pushed from the master server.
C.All media server installations should be performed as root/administrator.
D.All media server installations can be pushed from a media server with the same OS.
E.All media server installations require a tape drive be configured on the system.
Answer: AC

Symantec examen   250-265 examen   250-265   250-265

NO.7 As part of a hot catalog backup, which NetBackup components are backed up? (Choose three.)
A.EMM database
B.Image database
C.NOM database
D.configuration files
E.hosts file
Answer: ABD

Symantec   certification 250-265   certification 250-265   certification 250-265

NO.8 Which information is included in the disaster recovery e-mail sent by the hot catalog backup?
A.EMM server, Backup Media, DR file name and location
B.EMM server, Recovery Media, DR file name and location
C.Media Server, Critical Backup Recovery Media, DR file name and location
D.Media Server, Catalog Recovery Media, DR file name and location
Answer: D

Symantec   250-265   250-265 examen

NO.9 Which processes are found on a NetBackup UNIX client? (Choose three.)
A.bpbkar
B.bpbrm
C.tar
D.bpcompatd
E.bpcd
Answer: ACE

Symantec   250-265   250-265   certification 250-265

NO.10 Which guidelines should be followed when conducting a NetBackup media server installation?
(Choose three.)
A.You should remove any other vendor backup software.
B.At least one tape drive should be available for backup operations.
C.All NetBackup servers should recognize and be recognized by their client systems.
D.You should make certain that you have a server of a supported hardware type running a supported
version of an OS.
E.You should remove previous versions of NetBackup in a Windows environment.
Answer: ACD

certification Symantec   250-265   250-265

NO.11 What is the minimum supported client version for NetBackup 6.5?
A.3.4
B.4.5
C.4.5 FP6
D.5.x
Answer: D

Symantec examen   250-265   250-265 examen

NO.12 Which operating systems are supported as clients in NetBackup 6.5? (Choose three.)
A.Windows 2000
B.Windows NT 4.0 SP6
C.Windows 2003
D.Solaris 7
E.Solaris 9
Answer: ACE

Symantec   250-265   250-265 examen   250-265   250-265 examen   250-265 examen

NO.13 Which statements are true about a media server upgrade from version 6.0 to version 6.5? (Choose
three.)
A.All clients must be on 6.5 if their media server is on 6.5.
B.The media server must be on 6.5 or 6.0 if the clients are on 5.1.
C.The media server must be on 6.5 or 6.0 if the clients are on 6.0.
D.The master server can be upgraded to 6.5 and media servers can remain at 6.0.
E.The media server can be upgraded to 6.5 and the master server can remain at 6.0.
Answer: BCD

certification Symantec   250-265   250-265

NO.14 Given the following scenario about a policy with a single client:
Allow Multiple Data Streams is enabled.
ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES is specified.
Three tape drives are available in the storage unit.
Max Jobs Per Client is set to 2.
The client specified has five local file systems with no exclude list.
How many backup jobs will be active (versus queued) after the policy successfully initiates?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.5
Answer: B

Symantec examen   250-265   certification 250-265   250-265

NO.15 When the master server is running NetBackup version 6.5, what is the minimum version of NetBackup
that can be running on a media server?
A.5.0 MP3
B.5.0 MP4
C.5.1
D.5.1 MP4
Answer: B

Symantec   certification 250-265   250-265

NO.16 Which statement is true about a policy that has its start window set to daily from 8:00 p.m. to 11:00
p.m.?
A.Backups will always start at 8:00 p.m.
B.Backups will never run past 11:00 p.m.
C.Backups will never start after 11:00 p.m.
D.Backups will pause at 11:00 p.m.
Answer: C

Symantec examen   certification 250-265   250-265   250-265 examen   250-265   certification 250-265

NO.17 What are functions of the EMM server? (Choose three.)
A.It provides a decentralized data store.
B.It provides a centralized data store.
C.It manages the allocation of resources.
D.It communicates with media servers.
E.It stores the image catalog.
Answer: BCD

Symantec   250-265 examen   250-265   250-265   certification 250-265

NO.18 Which command can be used to configure tape drives and robotic devices?
A.tpautoconfig
B.tpconfig
C.tpreq
D.tpext
Answer: B

Symantec   250-265   certification 250-265   250-265   250-265

NO.19 After replacing a tape drive, which NetBackup command can you run to verify the operating system is
seeing the new tape drive?
A.scan -all
B.scan -os
C.tape -scan
D.tape -config
Answer: A

Symantec examen   250-265   250-265 examen

NO.20 How do you ensure that your policies are backing up all volumes/file systems on all of your clients?
A.Use bp_testall
B.Use bpconfirm
C.Use check_coverage
D.Check the Backup_All option in every policy
Answer: C

Symantec   certification 250-265   250-265 examen

NO.21 You have a NetBackup installation where the master and EMM servers are two separate servers.
Which NetBackup components are found on the EMM server?
A.nbemm, nbproxy, pbx, nbrb
B.nbemm, nbjm, pbx, nbproxy
C.nbemm, pbx, nbrb, nbjm
D.nbemm, nbproxy, nbrb, nbjm
Answer: A

Symantec   certification 250-265   250-265   250-265

NO.22 Which command is used to view NetBackup processes?
A.bpps
B.bpnos
C.bpverify
D.bpsl
Answer: A

Symantec   250-265   250-265   250-265 examen   250-265

NO.23 When installing NetBackup 6.5, which documents should be reviewed before installing the
application?
(Choose three.)
A.Release Notes
B.Hardware Compatability Guide
C.Hardware Supported List
D.Operating System Compatability Guide
E.Operating System Supported List
Answer: ABD

Symantec   250-265   certification 250-265   250-265 examen

NO.24 Which log do you monitor to determine if multiplexing could improve performance?
A.bptm
B.bprd
C.nbjob
D.nbpem
Answer: A

Symantec examen   250-265   250-265 examen   250-265 examen

NO.25 Which NetBackup components make up IRM?
A.nbpem, nbjobd, nbgenjob
B.nbpem, nbjm, nbrb
C.nbpem, nbgenjob, nbjm
D.nbpem, nbrb, nbsl
Answer: B

Symantec examen   250-265   250-265 examen   250-265 examen   250-265

NO.26 In a NetBackup 6.5 environment, the image database resides _____.
A.Within the EMM database.
B.On the EMM server in binary format.
C.On the master server in binary format.
D.Within the master server's Sybase database.
Answer: C

certification Symantec   250-265   250-265   certification 250-265

NO.27 Media ID A00001 continues to have various errors. You are unsure if you are having problems with
this tape or a specific tape drive.
Which file can be reviewed to see when the error occured and which tape drive was being used?
A.errors
B.mediaDB
C.bpdm log
D.bpbkar log
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which servers can be added to a server group? (Choose three.)
A.Master server
B.Media server
C.EMM server
D.NDMP tape server
E.NOM server
Answer: ABD

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NO.29 A tape is automatically frozen when NetBackup attempts to use it for a policy backup.
Which condition can cause this?
A.The tape is full.
B.The tape has expired.
C.The tape is already in use.
D.The tape has been used for NetBackup catalogs.
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which statement is true about the relationship between a master server and an EMM server?
A.An EMM server supports only one master server.
B.An EMM server supports more than one master server.
C.Amaster server may use more than one EMM server.
D.Amaster server may use an EMM server one major version behind.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: ST0-058
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundations 5.1 for Windows (STS))
Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a best practice when installing Dymanic Multi-pathing for Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. have a single physical path to storage
B. turn off the hardware cache on external storage
C. have all physical paths to storage enabled
D. physically remove all the HBAs from the server
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows volume layout that achieves redundancy by
striping data with parity across multiple disks?
A. RAID 5
B. striped mirroring
C. concatenation
D. mirroring
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows (SFW) component that represents the
available space that SFW can use to assign to volumes?
A. public region
B. private region
C. dynamic disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which action in the Veritas Enterprise Administrator console should you use to move a set of subdisks
from one dynamic disk group to a new dynamic disk group?
A. Split Dynamic Disk Group
B. Remove Disks from Dynamic Disk Group
C. Move Dynamic Disk Group Objects
D. Join Dynamic Disk Group
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which advantage is provided by the SmartMove feature in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. reduction of mirror synchronization time
B. rebuilding of redundancy in the case of a disk failure
C. automatic failover in the case of a path failure
D. consistent secondary volumes using Veritas Volume Replicator
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which advantage does the hot relocation feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows
provide?
A. rebuilding of redundancy when there is a disk failure
B. automatic synchronization of replicated data
C. fast synchronization of RAID 5 volumes after a system crash
D. optimized synchronization of stale volume data
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows component that stores information about
virtual objects?
A. private region
B. public region
C. dynamic disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that contains plex objects?
A. volume
B. subdisk
C. disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which three advantages does the Veritas Volume Replicator feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1
for Windows provide? (Select three.)
A. hardware-independent copies of data that are consistent
B. dynamic bandwidth throttling
C. sharing of disk groups across heterogeneous systems
D. tiered storage of data across multiple disk arrays
E. replication over multiple TCP connections
Answer: ABE

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NO.10 What is the smallest unit of storage in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows?
A. subdisk
B. plex
C. volume
D. partition
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which advantage is provided by the Write-order Fidelity feature of Veritas Volume Replicator in Veritas
Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows?
A. consistent secondary volumes
B. fast resynchronization of mirrored secondary volumes
C. RAID 5 logging on secondary volumes
D. fast updates to secondary volumes
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that holds a single complete
copy of the data?
A. plex
B. volume
C. subdisk
D. LUN
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is one difference between a basic disk and a dynamic disk?
A. private region
B. application data
C. volume
D. resides on a single plex
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that is directly accessed by a
filesystem?
A. volume
B. subdisk
C. subvolume
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which advantage does the VxCache feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows provide?
A. improved performance of dynamic volumes
B. hardware-independent, up-to-date remote copies of data
C. tiered storage of data across multiple disk arrays
D. fast recovery of disk group configurations
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows volume layout where data is arranged both
sequentially and contiguously within a single plex?
A. concatenation
B. striping
C. mirroring
D. RAID 5
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which advantage does the FlashSnap feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows provide?
A. hardware-independent, point-in-time copies of data
B. hardware-independent, synchronous remote copies of data
C. fast recovery of disk group configuration
D. sharing of disk groups across heterogeneous systems
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which command can you use to set the read policy on a plex in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. vxvol
B. vxplex
C. vxassist
D. vxedit
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which advantage does the Data Change Object (DCO) feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows provide?
A. optimized resynchronization of stale volume data
B. ability to grow volumes online
C. control of volumes across heterogeneous systems
D. fast resynchronization of mirrored volumes after a system crash
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows component that is a structured collection of
subdisks that represents one copy of the data?
A. plex
B. volume
C. dynamic disk
D. dynamic disk group
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ST0-057
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas NBU PureDisk 6.5 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

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NO.1 At which component level does PureDisk provide for bandwidth efficiency by deduplicating data?
A. client
B. storage pool authority
C. content router
D. metabase engine
Answer: A

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NO.2 How many terabytes of data in PureDisk 6.5 can be stored per content router in the storage pool?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.3 By default, where does PureDisk provide for data security by encrypting the data?
A. content router
B. storage pool authority
C. client
D. metabase engine
Answer: C

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NO.4 When backing up a new file, which information is sent that describes that file's attributes?
A. metadata
B. path object
C. data object
D. segment data
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which version of Veritas Volume Manager is included with a PureDisk 6.5 installation?
A. 4.0
B. 4.1
C. 5.0
D. 5.1
Answer: B

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NO.6 By default, a storage pool with a single metabase engine is limited to how many clients?
A. 256
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 2048
Answer: C

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NO.7 On which component in the PureDisk architecture does grouping clients with similar data improve
deduplication?
A. storage pool authority
B. metabase server
C. content router
D. repository manager
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two components can be added to increase the size of the PureDisk storage pool? (Select two.)
A. metabase engine
B. content router
C. client agents
D. NetBackup export engine
E. storage pool authority
Answer: AB

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NO.9 From which two optional locations can PureDisk retrieve user information? (Select two.)
A. Internal LDAP
B. Active Directory
C. System Password File
D. PureDisk Authority Directory
Answer: AB

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NO.10 Which component must be installed within a PureDisk storage pool?
A. workflow controller
B. CIFS interface
C. NetBackup export engine
D. content router
Answer: D

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NO.11 On which three operating systems does NetBackup support running the PureDisk 6.5 deduplication
option? (Select three.)
A. Windows Server 2000
B. Solaris 9
C. Linux
D. HP/UX
E. IBM AIX
Answer: ABC

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NO.12 Which application is newly supported in version 6.5 of PureDisk?
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
B. Microsoft Exchange 2007
C. Oracle 11i DBMS
D. Microsoft Message Queue
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which is an optional component that can be installed within a PureDisk storage pool?
A. metabase engine
B. content router
C. NetBackup export engine
D. controller
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which key feature of PureDisk 6.5 depends on the client communicating with the storage pool to
determine whether data is already stored?
A. data security and encryption
B. global deduplication
C. fast access to backup data
D. central management
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which service can be added to an existing storage pool to increase the amount of data stored in the
environment?
A. metabase engine
B. content router
C. metabase server
D. repository manager
E. workflow controller
Answer: B

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NO.16 Multiple nodes have been configured with the Topology Wizard.
Which script will push out the software to these nodes?
A. install_newStoragePool.sh
B. enc_topology.sh
C. update_topology.sh
D. add_onNode.sh
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which feature does PureDisk enable by using a CIFS interface?
A. direct access to backup data
B. NetBackup integration
C. data security and encryption
D. central management
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is created in PureDisk by using an MD5 algorithm?
A. fingerprint
B. data object
C. workflow object
D. segment
Answer: A

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NO.19 When installing a PureDisk agent, unless you specify a location or department, where does PureDisk
place the client agent?
A. Central SPA location and department
B. Default Agents
C. Unknown location and Unknown department
D. Unknown Agents
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which data has the default size of 128 KB?
A. data object
B. fingerprint
C. segment
D. workflow object
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: ST0-12W
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas Cluster Server 5 for Windows (STS))
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 A process is manually shut down to test an automatic failover of a configured Process resource. The
service group then fails over to another system. What should be cleared before bringing the service group
back to the system on which the test was originally conducted?
A. resource
B. attribute
C. cluster
D. system
Answer:A

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NO.2 You are tasked with making an existing production system highly available with Veritas Cluster Server.
You have already verified that the hardware is compatible with Veritas Cluster Server. You are now
evaluating the software on the systems for Veritas Cluster Server compatibility.
What must be verified for Veritas Cluster Server compatibility?
A. the oper~ting system version
B. the volume management software version
C. the NIC driver version
D. the file system version
Answer:A

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NO.3 Several application service groups require their own virtuallP addresses to share a single NIC on each
system in a cluster. Which agent reduces the overhead associated with monitoring the NIC’ s
status?
A. proxy
B. MultiNICB
C. NIC
D. phantom
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the Veritas Cluster Server service that maintains resource configuration and state
information?
A. h~d
B. hastate
C. haconf
D.hacf
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which characteristic must an application have in order to be managed by Veritas Cluster Server?
A. It must be re startable to ~ known state after failure and tattover.
B. It must be startable by a user other than the system account.
C. It must be a stateless application.
D. It must be capable of running on all systems simultaneously.
Answer:A

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NO.6 What is the Veritas Cluster Server term for how a system joining an existing cluster retrieves the cluster
configuration?
A. remote build
B. local build
C. onetime build
D. initial build
Answer:A

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NO.7 Which two tasks can be performed to improve the overall fault tolerance of a Veritas Cluster Server
cluster? (Choose two.)
A. connect e ach system in the cluster to separate power sources DB. mirror the os disk of e ach system
in the cluster
C. connect a tape drive to each system in the cluster
D. add a local disk array to each system in the cluster
E. add CPUs to each node in the cluster
Answer:A,B

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NO.8 What are two valid settings for the ManageFaults service group attibute? (Choose two.) A . All
B. None
C.Priority
D. MonitorOnly
E. Manual
Answer: A,B,

Symantec   ST0-12W   ST0-12W   ST0-12W

NO.9 You are designing a high availability solution for an important new application and you are in the
process of identifying single points of failure in the design. What are two possible single points of failure
that can be addressed by Veritas Cluster Server? (Choose two.)
A. network
B. stor~ge
C. processors
D. memory
E. environment
Answer:A,B

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NO.10 You have two of three systems in a cluster up and running Veritas Cluster Server. When the third
system starts, it finds that it has a valid Veritas Cluster Server configuration file. This configuration is
different than the one on the first two systems.
How does Veritas Cluster Server handle this situation?
A. It will use the configur~tion from the first two systems.
B. It will use the configuration from the third system.
C. It will integrate the files to resolve the differences.
D. The third node will be unable to start.
Answer:A

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NO.11 Which three elements must be moved from the failed server to the takeover server for network users to
resume access to the database when a failover occurs? (Choose three.)
A. the vtrtuat ts address
B. the set of processes
C. the Ethernet address
D. the public key
E. the disk group
Answer:A,B,E

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NO.12 What are three possible types of Veritas Cluster Server service groups? (Choose three.)
A. Failover
B. Hybrid
C. Parallel
D. Singlenode
E. OnOnly
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.13 Four servers available for clustering are located in two buildings. Each building contains two servers
and the servers are on the same network. There are two disk arrays to which all four servers have shared
data access. Which type of cluster topology is required?
A. campus cluster
B. global cluster
C. shared nothing cluster
D. split brain cluster
Answer:A

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NO.14 A service group with the FaiioverPolicy set to Priority has a fault and is failing over. The group fail over
to the system with the __ .
A. lowest as siqne d value in the groups SystemList
B. highest assigned value in the groups SystemList
C. lowest number of service groups currently online
D. highest available capacity in the groups SystemList
Answer:A

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NO.15 You are modifying the cluster configuration while the cluster is stopped. You have edited and verified
the main.cf file on system SysA. Which command do you use to start the cluster with the new
configuration on system SysA?
A. hastart
B. haclus -rebuild .Imain .cr
C. hasys ?start SysA
D. hareconfig
Answer:A

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NO.16 Which Symantec product feature or attribute allows for the same application to be started
simultaneously on different systems?
A. parallet service groups
B. Veritas FlashSnap
C. the online local dependency
D. the parallelstart group attribute
Answer:A

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NO.17 You have one of three systems in a cluster up and running Veritas Cluster Server. When the second
system starts, it finds that it has a valid Veritas Cluster Server configuration file. This configuration is
different than the one on the first system.
What happens?
A. Verltas Cluster Server uses the one from the first system.
B. Veritas Cluster Server uses the one from the second system.
C. Veritas Cluster Server will integrate the files.
D. Veritas Cluster Server will wait for the third system.
Answer:A

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NO.18 Which command do you use to change a service group attribute in a running cluster?
A. h~grp ?modify
B. hagrp ?change
C. hamodify ?group
D. hamodify ?attribute
Answer:A

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NO.19 You want to validate operation after installing, configuring, and starting Veritas Cluster Server. Which
two GAB ports should be shown as running? (Choose two.)
A. a
B. c
C. h
D. S
E. V
Answer:A,C

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NO.20 Where are configuration changes maintained in a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster?
A. memory on ~II systems
B. disk on all systems
C. memory on quorum system
D. disk on quorum system
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: ST0-096
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec 2010(STS))
Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

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NO.1 Which versions of Symantec Backup Exec is supported for direct upgrade to Symantec Backup Exec
2010?
A.version 8.x and later
B.version 9.x and later
C.version 10.x and later
D.version 11.x and later
Answer: D

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NO.2 If LiveUpdate fails to install a patch, which file contains information to troubleshoot this issue?
A.Bkupinst.log
B.Bkupinst.htm
C.Liveupdate.htm
D.Liveupdate.log
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2010 option allows backup of a NetApp filer?
A.Advanced Disk-Based Backup Option
B.NDMP Option
C.NAS Option
D.Remote Agent for NDMP devices
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-096   ST0-096

NO.4 Which two Symantec Backup Exec 2010 Agents can use Granular Recovery Technology? (Select two.)
A.Active Directory Recovery Agent
B.Agent for Microsoft SharePoint
C.Agent for Lotus Domino
D.Agent for Oracle on Windows or Linux Servers
E.Agent for Enterprise Vault
Answer: AB

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NO.5 Which added functionality becomes available when Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM),
Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP), and Symantec Backup Exec 2010 (BE) are installed on the same
computer?
A.BE jobs can invoke a virus scan without using a script.
B.BE will display information from SEPM.
C.SEPM can initiate BE restore jobs.
D.SEP will quarantine virus-infected files and initiate a backup.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is supported by Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
A.Windows NT 4.0
B.Lotus Domino
C.Tivoli Storage Manager
D.Microsoft Data Protection Manager
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the trial period for Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
A.7 days
B.30 days
C.60 days
D.120 days
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which components make up the basic Symantec Backup Exec 2010 installation?
A.Central Administration Server (CAS), media server, storage devices, and media
B.media server, Administration Console, domain controller, and clients
C.Central Administration Server (CAS), Administration Console, storage controllers, and media
D.media server, Administration Console, storage devices, and clients
Answer: D

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NO.9 How can an administrator install the Backup Exec Database (BEDB) when installing Symantec Backup
Exec 2010 on a Windows 2008 Read-Only Domain Controller (RODC)?
A.locally, using Microsoft SQL Express
B.remotely, using Microsoft SQL Server 2005
C.remotely, using MySQL
D.locally, using Microsoft SQL 2005 in read-only mode
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two functions does the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 media server perform? (Select two.)
A.controls and manages backup and restore operations
B.controls authentication and access to the SAN disk storage
C.controls role-based security
D.attaches to and controls storage device hardware
E.creates image-based system backups
Answer: AD

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NO.11 What are two supported processor types for installing and running a Symantec Backup Exec 2010
media server? (Select two.)
A.AMD
B.Itanium
C.RISC
D.Xeon
E.SPARC
Answer: AD

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NO.12 What does Symantec Backup Exec 2010 use to track contents of media?
A.catalogs
B.job logs
C.media headers
D.media sets
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which type of backup is used for an online database and other files that are open and in use by other
applications?
A.snapshot
B.flat
C.active
D.hot
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which two database versions can be used to store the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 Database
(BEDB)? (Select two.)
A.Microsoft SQL Server Desktop Engine 2000 SP3a
B.Microsoft SQL Express 2005 SP3
C.Microsoft SQL 2000 SP3a
D.Microsoft SQL 2008
E.Microsoft SQL 2005 SP2
Answer: BD

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NO.15 Which two rights does Symantec Backup Exec 2010 assign to the Backup Exec Service Account
during installation? (Select two.)
A.Log on as a service
B.Log on as administrator
C.Create a token object
D.Create a token administrator
E.Manage operator rights
Answer: AC

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NO.16 Which job can Symantec Backup Exec 2010 be configured to run when certain Symantec ThreatCon
levels are reached?
A.virus scan
B.backup
C.duplicate backup
D.restore
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-096   ST0-096   ST0-096

NO.17 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2010 utility automatically scans a computer targeted for installation and
reports on system requirements?
A.Backup Exec Installation Check
B.Backup Exec Diagnostic Check
C.Backup Exec Environment Check
D.Backup Exec Prerequisite Check
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which option is included with a server license in Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
A.Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
B.Advanced Disk-based Backup Option (ADBO)
C.Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
D.Granular Recovery Technology Option (GRT)
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-096   ST0-096

NO.19 What is stored directly in the Symantec Backup Exec Database (BEDB)?
A.alerts
B.job logs
C.license information
D.role-based security credentials
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two options are available for Symantec Backup Exec 2010? (Select two.)
A.Symantec Backup Exec SAN Media Server Option
B.Symantec Backup Exec Deduplication Option
C.Symantec Backup Exec Inline Tape Copy Option
D.Symantec Backup Exec Granular Recovery Option
E.Symantec Backup Exec Advanced Disk-based Backup Option
Answer: BE

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Code d'Examen: ST0-086
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010(STS))
Questions et réponses: 127 Q&As

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NO.1 Which functionality found in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Windows Edition is also
available in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Linux Edition?
A. converting an image file to a virtual hard disk
B. creating a backup every month on a specified day
C. managing backups using a local graphical console
D. restoring an entire computer to the same hardware
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which backup method is available with Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Linux Edition?
A. independent recovery point backup
B. recovery point set backup
C. incremental backup
D. file and folder backup
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the first required step tor managing computers from Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery
2010 Management Solution?
A. create resource targets
B. define backup policies
C. install the Alans Agent
D. discover computers on the network
Answer: D

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NO.4 In an organization, users are commonly working on their computers while Backups are occurring.
To improve application performance for users, how is Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
tuned tor user performance to take priority over backups?
A. adjust Default Performance
B. suspend backups while the system is active
C. change Connection Mode
D. enable the Computer Responsiveness setting
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which tool is used in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 to control permissions?
A. Permission Configuration tool
B. Rote-Dased Administration tool
C. Security Configuration tool
D. User Access Control tool
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which option must be installed prior to installing Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Symantec Installation Manager
C. Symantec Backup Exec Infrastructure Manager
D. Symantec LiveUpdate
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the minimum amount of memory required to run Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery
2010 for Linux17
A. 256 MB
B. 384 MB
C. 512MB
D. 1 GB
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two options are available to configure FTP offsite copy? (Select two)
A. Failover to alternate site
B. secure FTP
C. Limit connection attempts to
D. Connection mode
E. Limit number of copies
Answer: C, D

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NO.9 An administrator has an internal drive that is only used for temporary storage. Which option must De
configured to disable status reporting for this drive?
A. Error Only status reporting
B. Configure status reporting
C. No status reporting
D. Full status reporting
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two options must be installed to migrate managed client computers from Symantec Backup
Exec System Recovery Manager 85 (BESR) to Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Agent
B. BESR plug-in
C. Symantec Installation Manager
D. Symantec ThreatCon
E. BESR Management Console
Answer: A, B

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NO.11 A computer is currently managed by Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery Manager 8.5. The
administrator needs to manage that computer using Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution.
Which component will be removed during migration?
A. Altihs plug-in
B. Altihs Agent
C. Management Console
D. Management Control
Answer: D

Symantec examen   ST0-086   ST0-086   ST0-086

NO.12 An administrator needs to configure the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Event log
logging level for only the most critical problems.
Which two steps are required to accomplish this? (Select two).
A. set the type of messages to High Priority Messages
B. set the type of messages to All Messages
C. set the type of messages to Medium and High Priority Messages
D. check the Errors check Dox
E. check the Errors and warnings check Dox
F. check me Errors, warnings, and informational check Dox
Answer: A, D

Symantec examen   ST0-086 examen   ST0-086

NO.13 Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 (BESR) Is installed on a windows Server 2003 it Is then
used to deploy agents to five remote computers running windows Server 2003. and nve computers
running windows 7 Enterprise.
Regardless of the edition. how many total BESR licenses are required to license all machines in the
environment?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10
E. 11
Answer: E

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NO.14 Which two options will activate the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 (BESR) evaluation
period? (Select two.)
A. beginning the BESR installation program
B. running a dnve-based or file and folder backup
C. booting a system from the System Recovery Disk (SRD)
D. defining a drive-based or file and folder backup
E. completing the BESR Installation program
Answer: B, D

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NO.15 Using the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Management Solution, an administrator can
define which two types or backup policies? (Select two)
A. Backup Point Set
B. File and Folder Policy
C. Recovery Point Set
D. Independent Backup Point
E. Independent Recovery Point
Answer: C, E

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NO.16 An administrator needs to create a new destination for the backup of a server with Symantec Backup
Exec System Recovery 2010 (BESR) Management Solution.
Which server requires access to the location?
A. the client server
B. the BESR Management Solution database server
C. the BESR Management Solution server
D. the UveUpdate server
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which configuration feature of Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 allows the recovery of
a remote machine by removing the requirement for external boot media?
A. Restore Anyware
B. LightsOut Restore
C. Cold Image Restore
D. Symantec pcAnywhere
Answer: B

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NO.18 When installing the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Agent on Windows Server 2008,
which two services are automatically installed on the host computer? (Select two.)
A. Symantec Alert service
B. Symantec SymSnap VSS Provider service
C. Symantec pcAnywhere Host service
D. SymSnapService service
E. Symantec FiashSnap service
Answer: B, D

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NO.19 What is me minimum memory that LightsOut Restore requires to run?
A. 512MB
B. 768 MB
C. 1 GB
D. 2 GB
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which type of backup task for Linux is supported oy Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution?
A. offsite copy
B. recovery point set
C. file and folder backup
D. independent recovery point
Answer: D

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