2014年3月31日星期一

Certification Symantec de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen 250-351, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 250-351
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Admin of Veritas Storage Foundation HA 5.0 for Windows)
Questions et réponses: 253 Q&As

250-351 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/250-351.html

NO.1 Which two files are required in order to start the Veritas Cluster Server Simulator? (Choose
two.)
A.main.cf
B.main.cf.previous
C.main.cf.sim
D.types.cf
E.types.cf.previous
F.types.cf.sim
Correct:A D

certification Symantec   certification 250-351   250-351

NO.2 You are using the Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) Java console to connect to a VCS Simulator
session that is running within a production VCS cluster. The Java console is unable to connect to
the VCS Simulator session. What are two possible causes for the connection problem? (Choose
two.)
A.HAD for the production VCS cluster is not running.
B.The VCS Simulator is not running.
C.The port number is incorrect.
D.The hashadow process for the VCS cluster is hung.
E.The ClusterService group is offline.
Correct:B C

certification Symantec   certification 250-351   250-351

NO.3 What is the correct configuration of Exchange to enable failover in a cluster?
A.Active/Passive with four systems and two Exchange instances
B.Active/Active with four systems and five Exchange instances
C.Active/Active with four systems each running multiple Exchange instances
D.Active/Passive with four systems and four Exchange instances
Correct:A

certification Symantec   certification 250-351   250-351

NO.4 What is the default level of authorization of a new Veritas Cluster Server user?
A.Cluster Administrator
B.Cluster Operator
C.Cluster Guest
D.Group Administrator
E.Group Operator
Correct:C

certification Symantec   certification 250-351   250-351

NO.5 If a persistent resource in a service group named SG1 faults, Veritas Cluster Server fails the
service group over to another system if which two conditions are met? (Choose two.)
A.The ManageFault attribute is set.
B.The AutoFailOver attribute is set.
C.Another system in the cluster is available to which SG1 can failover.
D.The AutoRestart attribute is set.
E.Another system in a different cluster is available to which SG1 can failover.
Correct:B C

certification Symantec   certification 250-351   250-351

NO.6 A cluster has three systems: S1, S2, and S3; and six service groups: SGa, SGb, SGc, SGd, SGe,
and SGf. The SGa, SGd, and SGf service groups are online on the S1 system. The SGc and SGe
service groups are online on the S2 system. The SGb service group is online on the S3 system.
Given the partial main.cf definition: Group SGb ( SystemList = { S1 = 0, S2 = 1, S3 = 1 }
AutoStartList = { S1, S2, S3 } FailOverPolicy = RoundRobin ) If the S3 system reboots, what
happens to SGb?
A.It goes to system S1.
B.It goes to system S2.
C.It goes to system S3.
D.It remains offline.
Correct:B

certification Symantec   certification 250-351   250-351

NO.7 During a test of a persistent resource, the Veritas Cluster Server engine log indicates that the
service group and the persistent resource enter the FAULTED state on all systems in the cluster.
The resource enters the ONLINE state after the root cause of the fault is corrected. Which default
attribute setting allows the service group to attempt to start without manual intervention?
A.AutoStart
B.AutoClear
C.AutoRestart
D.AutoFailover
Correct:C

certification Symantec   certification 250-351   250-351

NO.8 Which functionality is added to the Java console when accessing the Veritas Cluster Server
Simulator rather than a running cluster? (Choose two.)
A.power off/on a system
B.delete a system
C.fault a resource
D.fault a heartbeat link
E.power off/on a disk array
F.remove a heartbeat link
Correct:A C

certification Symantec   certification 250-351   250-351

NO.9 A Web hosting company has an eight-node cluster running 60 Web servers. Their failover
objective is to distribute the load equally among all nodes. Each Web server has approximately
the same load on the servers. All servers are identical. Which FailOverPolicy accomplishes this
with the least amount of effort on the part of the administrator?
A.Load
B.Priority
C.RoundRobin
D.Average
Correct:C

certification Symantec   certification 250-351   250-351

NO.10 Which two attributes must be defined for a SQLServer2005 resource? (Choose two.)
A.UserAccount
B.Instance
C.DetailMonitor
D.LanmanResName
E.MountV
Correct:B D

certification Symantec   certification 250-351   250-351

NO.11 A new file share service group is configured using the FileShare Configuration Wizard. What is
the default value for the ForceUnmount attribute for the MountV resource?
A.NONE
B.ALL
C.READ_ONLY
D.READ_WRITE
Correct:C

certification Symantec   certification 250-351   250-351

NO.12 An update to SQL Server makes changes to registry keys on the active system. Which type of
resource copies these changes to the target system on failover?
A.RegKey
B.KeyRep
C.Replicate
D.RegRep
Correct:D

certification Symantec   certification 250-351   250-351

NO.13 Given the following information: include "types.cf" cluster default_clus ( UserNames = { aaron
= alkdsjfaldjaldfaH, barbara = ieruhrkafhkafhake, carmen = urHkjREOHGkajhuel, dionne =
lasdjfasiLjirrljl, edward = asdlfjaielajfLKio, fung = EIwfjsldfjaldfjaM, georgia = LlkjLriLKjrleirka }
Administrators = { aaron } Operators = { barbara } CounterInterval = 5 ) group group1 ( SystemList
= { sys1 = 0, sys2 = 1 } AutoStartList = { sys1 } Administrators = { carmen } Operators = { dionne } )
group group2 ( SystemList = { sys2 = 0, sys1 = 1 } AutoStartList = { sys2 } Administrators =
{ edward } Operators = { fung } ) Which two users can persistently freeze group2? (Choose two.)
A.aaron
B.barbara
C.carmen
D.edward
E.fung
F.georgia
Correct:A D

certification Symantec   certification 250-351   250-351

NO.14 Given a three-node cluster running two instances of Exchange with an any-to-any
configuration, which FailOverPolicy prevents one instance of Exchange from attempting to fail
over to the node with Exchange running on it?
A.Round-robin
B.Priority
C.Load
D.Exclusive
Correct:C

certification Symantec   certification 250-351   250-351

NO.15 A PostOnline trigger is being tested on a three-system cluster with systems named SystemA,
SystemB, and SystemC. The trigger works on SystemA, but it fails to run on SystemB and
SystemC. What is a possible reason for this?
A.The PostOnline trigger is missing from SystemB and SystemC.
B.The hatrigger script must be run on all systems to enable the PostOnline trigger.
C.The PostOnline attribute is set to False on SystemB and SystemC.
D.The Veritas Cluster Server engine had an error while replicating the trigger to SystemB and SystemC.
Correct:A

certification Symantec   certification 250-351   250-351

NO.16 A resource has the ResourceOwner attribute set to Marc. The resource has faulted. Who can
clear the fault?
A.any Cluster Administrator
B.any Cluster Guest
C.a Windows domain user named Marc, with or without a Veritas Cluster Server account
D.a Veritas Cluster Server user named Marc, with Cluster Guest priveleges
Correct:A

certification Symantec   certification 250-351   250-351

NO.17 What are two valid settings for FailOverPolicy? (Choose two.)
A.Priority
B.RoundRobin
C.Order
D.Failover
E.Capacity
Correct:A B

certification Symantec   certification 250-351   250-351

NO.18 Refer to the exhibit. A new VMDg resource is manually added to an existing service group, but
the VMDg resource fails to probe and shows a red question mark on the Veritas Cluster Server
Java console. What is a possible reason for this condition?
A.The DiskGroupName attribute was typed incorrectly.
B.The ForceImport attribute was set to True.
C.The DGGuid attribute was left blank.
D.The VMDg resource was set to non-critical.
Correct:A

certification Symantec   certification 250-351   250-351

NO.19 Which resource type attribute is modified to reduce the fault detection time?
A.MonitorTimeOut
B.MonitorInterval
C.FaultOnMonitorTimeouts
D.OnlineMonitorInterval
Correct:B

certification Symantec   certification 250-351   250-351

NO.20 Which service group attribute setting calls a user-defined script that checks for external
conditions before bringing the service group online?
A.PreOnlining
B.PreOnline
C.Priority
D.Probed
Correct:B

certification Symantec   certification 250-351   250-351

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Code d'Examen: 251-351
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Admin of Veritas Storage Foundation HA 5.0 for Windows)
Questions et réponses: 253 Q&As

251-351 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/251-351.html

NO.1 A PostOnline trigger is being tested on a three-system cluster with systems named SystemA,
SystemB, and SystemC. The trigger works on SystemA, but it fails to run on SystemB and
SystemC. What is a possible reason for this?
A.The PostOnline trigger is missing from SystemB and SystemC.
B.The hatrigger script must be run on all systems to enable the PostOnline trigger.
C.The PostOnline attribute is set to False on SystemB and SystemC.
D.The Veritas Cluster Server engine had an error while replicating the trigger to SystemB and SystemC.
Correct:A

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.2 What are two valid settings for FailOverPolicy? (Choose two.)
A.Priority
B.RoundRobin
C.Order
D.Failover
E.Capacity
Correct:A B

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.3 Which two files are required in order to start the Veritas Cluster Server Simulator? (Choose
two.)
A.main.cf
B.main.cf.previous
C.main.cf.sim
D.types.cf
E.types.cf.previous
F.types.cf.sim
Correct:A D

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.4 You are using the Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) Java console to connect to a VCS Simulator
session that is running within a production VCS cluster. The Java console is unable to connect to
the VCS Simulator session. What are two possible causes for the connection problem? (Choose
two.)
A.HAD for the production VCS cluster is not running.
B.The VCS Simulator is not running.
C.The port number is incorrect.
D.The hashadow process for the VCS cluster is hung.
E.The ClusterService group is offline.
Correct:B C

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.5 Which service group attribute setting calls a user-defined script that checks for external
conditions before bringing the service group online?
A.PreOnlining
B.PreOnline
C.Priority
D.Probed
Correct:B

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.6 Given a three-node cluster running two instances of Exchange with an any-to-any
configuration, which FailOverPolicy prevents one instance of Exchange from attempting to fail
over to the node with Exchange running on it?
A.Round-robin
B.Priority
C.Load
D.Exclusive
Correct:C

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.7 Refer to the exhibit. A new VMDg resource is manually added to an existing service group, but
the VMDg resource fails to probe and shows a red question mark on the Veritas Cluster Server
Java console. What is a possible reason for this condition?
A.The DiskGroupName attribute was typed incorrectly.
B.The ForceImport attribute was set to True.
C.The DGGuid attribute was left blank.
D.The VMDg resource was set to non-critical.
Correct:A

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.8 What is the default level of authorization of a new Veritas Cluster Server user?
A.Cluster Administrator
B.Cluster Operator
C.Cluster Guest
D.Group Administrator
E.Group Operator
Correct:C

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.9 A resource has the ResourceOwner attribute set to Marc. The resource has faulted. Who can
clear the fault?
A.any Cluster Administrator
B.any Cluster Guest
C.a Windows domain user named Marc, with or without a Veritas Cluster Server account
D.a Veritas Cluster Server user named Marc, with Cluster Guest priveleges
Correct:A

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.10 If a persistent resource in a service group named SG1 faults, Veritas Cluster Server fails the
service group over to another system if which two conditions are met? (Choose two.)
A.The ManageFault attribute is set.
B.The AutoFailOver attribute is set.
C.Another system in the cluster is available to which SG1 can failover.
D.The AutoRestart attribute is set.
E.Another system in a different cluster is available to which SG1 can failover.
Correct:B C

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.11 A new file share service group is configured using the FileShare Configuration Wizard. What is
the default value for the ForceUnmount attribute for the MountV resource?
A.NONE
B.ALL
C.READ_ONLY
D.READ_WRITE
Correct:C

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.12 What is the correct configuration of Exchange to enable failover in a cluster?
A.Active/Passive with four systems and two Exchange instances
B.Active/Active with four systems and five Exchange instances
C.Active/Active with four systems each running multiple Exchange instances
D.Active/Passive with four systems and four Exchange instances
Correct:A

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.13 A Web hosting company has an eight-node cluster running 60 Web servers. Their failover
objective is to distribute the load equally among all nodes. Each Web server has approximately
the same load on the servers. All servers are identical. Which FailOverPolicy accomplishes this
with the least amount of effort on the part of the administrator?
A.Load
B.Priority
C.RoundRobin
D.Average
Correct:C

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.14 During a test of a persistent resource, the Veritas Cluster Server engine log indicates that the
service group and the persistent resource enter the FAULTED state on all systems in the cluster.
The resource enters the ONLINE state after the root cause of the fault is corrected. Which default
attribute setting allows the service group to attempt to start without manual intervention?
A.AutoStart
B.AutoClear
C.AutoRestart
D.AutoFailover
Correct:C

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.15 Which functionality is added to the Java console when accessing the Veritas Cluster Server
Simulator rather than a running cluster? (Choose two.)
A.power off/on a system
B.delete a system
C.fault a resource
D.fault a heartbeat link
E.power off/on a disk array
F.remove a heartbeat link
Correct:A C

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.16 Given the following information: include "types.cf" cluster default_clus ( UserNames = { aaron
= alkdsjfaldjaldfaH, barbara = ieruhrkafhkafhake, carmen = urHkjREOHGkajhuel, dionne =
lasdjfasiLjirrljl, edward = asdlfjaielajfLKio, fung = EIwfjsldfjaldfjaM, georgia = LlkjLriLKjrleirka }
Administrators = { aaron } Operators = { barbara } CounterInterval = 5 ) group group1 ( SystemList
= { sys1 = 0, sys2 = 1 } AutoStartList = { sys1 } Administrators = { carmen } Operators = { dionne } )
group group2 ( SystemList = { sys2 = 0, sys1 = 1 } AutoStartList = { sys2 } Administrators =
{ edward } Operators = { fung } ) Which two users can persistently freeze group2? (Choose two.)
A.aaron
B.barbara
C.carmen
D.edward
E.fung
F.georgia
Correct:A D

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.17 A cluster has three systems: S1, S2, and S3; and six service groups: SGa, SGb, SGc, SGd, SGe,
and SGf. The SGa, SGd, and SGf service groups are online on the S1 system. The SGc and SGe
service groups are online on the S2 system. The SGb service group is online on the S3 system.
Given the partial main.cf definition: Group SGb ( SystemList = { S1 = 0, S2 = 1, S3 = 1 }
AutoStartList = { S1, S2, S3 } FailOverPolicy = RoundRobin ) If the S3 system reboots, what
happens to SGb?
A.It goes to system S1.
B.It goes to system S2.
C.It goes to system S3.
D.It remains offline.
Correct:B

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.18 An update to SQL Server makes changes to registry keys on the active system. Which type of
resource copies these changes to the target system on failover?
A.RegKey
B.KeyRep
C.Replicate
D.RegRep
Correct:D

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.19 Which resource type attribute is modified to reduce the fault detection time?
A.MonitorTimeOut
B.MonitorInterval
C.FaultOnMonitorTimeouts
D.OnlineMonitorInterval
Correct:B

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

NO.20 Which two attributes must be defined for a SQLServer2005 resource? (Choose two.)
A.UserAccount
B.Instance
C.DetailMonitor
D.LanmanResName
E.MountV
Correct:B D

certification Symantec   251-351   251-351   251-351 examen

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Code d'Examen: ST0-052
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows (STS))
Questions et réponses: 158 Q&As

ST0-052 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/ST0-052.html

NO.1 Which three properties can you configure when creating a media set? (Select three.)
A. overwrite protection periods
B. media vault rules
C. bar code rules
D. append periods
Answer: ABD

Symantec   certification ST0-052   ST0-052 examen   ST0-052 examen   ST0-052 examen

NO.2 Which statement is true about performing a granular restore of an Active Directory object to a Windows
2008 Read-Only Domain Controller (RODC)?
A. Granular restores of individual objects to the RODC are NOT allowed.
B. The Windows Active Directory service on the RODC must be stopped before the restore starts.
C. The individual object must first be restored to the Windows Active Directory Lightweight Directory
Service (Ad LDS).
D. The Windows VSS service on the RODC must be stopped before the restore starts.
Answer: A

Symantec examen   ST0-052 examen   ST0-052 examen   certification ST0-052

NO.3 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 Agent/Option is necessary for encrypting a backup?
A. Advanced Device and Media Management (ADAMM)
B. Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
C. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
D. Remote Agent for Windows Systems (RAWS)
Answer: D

certification Symantec   certification ST0-052   certification ST0-052   ST0-052

NO.4 What are three advantages of using the working set backup method? (Select three.)
A. requires fewer media to restore
B. requires less time to perform than a full backup
C. includes data that have been accessed in a specific number of days
D. provides a current backup of the entire system in one backup set
Answer: ABC

certification Symantec   ST0-052   certification ST0-052   ST0-052

NO.5 If the overwrite protection period is current, when can media be overwritten? (Select three.)
A. when the overwrite protection level is set to None
B. when the media is erased, formatted, or labeled
C. when the media is associated with the Scratch media set
D. when the append period is expired
Answer: ABC

Symantec   ST0-052 examen   ST0-052 examen   ST0-052   ST0-052

NO.6 What are three supported processor types for installing/running Symantec Backup Exec 12? (Select
three.)
A. AMD
B. Itanium
C. Pentium
D. Xeon
Answer: ACD

Symantec examen   ST0-052   ST0-052   certification ST0-052   ST0-052 examen

NO.7 Which two backup methods can reset the archive bit on files? (Select two.)
A. working set
B. differential
C. full
D. incremental
Answer: CD

Symantec   ST0-052   ST0-052 examen   ST0-052   ST0-052 examen

NO.8 When does a media's overwrite protection period begin?
A. at the time of the last write to the media
B. when the media is allocated to the media set
C. at the time of the first write to the media
D. when the media is ejected from the drive
Answer: A

Symantec examen   ST0-052 examen   ST0-052 examen

NO.9 Which three options are available for Symantec Backup Exec 12? (Select three.)
A. Backup Exec SAN Media Server Option
B. Backup Exec System Recovery Option
C. Backup Exec Inline Tape Copy Option
D. Backup Exec Desktop Laptop Option
E. Backup Exec Intelligent Disaster Recovery Option
Answer: BDE

Symantec   certification ST0-052   ST0-052

NO.10 Which components make up the basic Symantec Backup Exec 12 installation?
A. Central Administration Server (CAS), media server, storage devices, and media
B. media server, Administration Console, domain controller, and clients
C. Central Administration Server (CAS), Administration Console, storage controllers, and media
D. media server, Administration Console, storage devices, and clients
Answer: D

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NO.11 If you use Symantec Backup Exec 12 to remove media from a device or slot, which location displays
the media?
A. online media
B. offline media
C. user-defined media vault
D. Scratch media set
Answer: B

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NO.12 What are three types of templates? (Select three.)
A. Duplicate Backup Sets template
B. Export Media template
C. Synthetic Backup template
D. Erase Media template
E. Import Media template
Answer: ABC

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NO.13 Which database component is installed with Symantec Backup Exec 12?
A. Microsoft SQL Server 7
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 (SP-3a)
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express Edition
Answer: D

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NO.14 What are three features of the Central Admin Server Option (CASO)? (Select three.)
A. distributed catalogs
B. administration of NetWare media server
C. load balancing across media servers
D. management of other central administration servers
E. centralized catalogs
Answer: ACE

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NO.15 What are three functions that the Symantec Backup Exec 12 media server performs? (Select three.)
A. controls and manages backup and restore operations
B. controls authentication and access to the SAN disk storage
C. maintains the Backup Exec 12 database
D. attaches to and controls storage device hardware
Answer: ACD

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NO.16 What is a benefit of using preallocation in a backup-to-disk folder?
A. reduces file fragmentation
B. assigns media to backup jobs
C. assigns a backup-to-disk folder to a duplication job
D. prevents a job from running low on disk space
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which two actions can you perform on a selection list when running in a Central Admin Server Option
(CASO) environment? (Select two.)
A. restrict backup to specific devices on media servers
B. restrict which users can run restore jobs
C. restrict backup to media servers in a pool
D. restrict which media servers can run duplicate jobs
Answer: AC

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NO.18 Which backup method should you use to back up only the files that were changed today?
A. full
B. working set
C. archive
D. differential
Answer: B

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NO.19 What do backup-to-disk folders provide? (Select three.)
A. faster method to back up and restore data
B. concurrent jobs to the same backup-to-disk folder
C. encryption when using Granular Recovery Technology
D. backup-to-disk with scheduled duplication to tape
Answer: ABD

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NO.20 Which option or agent was enhanced to support Windows Server 2008 Read Only Domain Controllers
(RODC)?
A. Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
B. Agent for Microsoft SharePoint
C. Active Directory Recovery Agent
D. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which two periods must be defined when creating a Symantec Backup Exec 12 media set?
A. append and overwrite protection periods
B. system and overwrite protection periods
C. retention and overwrite protection periods
D. append and retention periods
Answer: A

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NO.22 Where can you find a list of all the media that is required for a restore job?
A. All Media node
B. media set
C. Reports tab
D. media vault
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which type of backup is used for an online database?
A. snapshot
B. flat
C. active
D. cold
Answer: A

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NO.24 How do you back up data residing on a network share that is not visible in the backup selections?
A. change the security of the network share to "full control"
B. add the UNC path in user-defined selections
C. install the Network Share Publishing Agent
D. install the NDMP option on the computer hosting the network share
Answer: B

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NO.25 What are two characteristics of the default media set named <span style="font-style: italic;">"Keep
Data Infinitely - Do Not Allow Overwrite"? (Select two.)
A. applies to all backup jobs until you create another media set
B. allows data to be appended to media for 90 days
C. cannot change the defaults for this media set
D. requires continuous introduction of Scratch Media unless you change the defaults
Answer: AD

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NO.26 What are three consequences of doing only full backups? (Select three.)
A. only allows full restores
B. redundant backups
C. takes more time
D. requires more media
Answer: BCD

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NO.27 Which statement is true about removable backup-to-disk folders?
A. They can exist on tape or disk media.
B. They can span multiple media.
C. Performance is significantly enhanced.
D. Only USB is supported.
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which three security attributes does Symantec Backup Exec 12 designate for its service account or an
existing user account during installation? (Select three.)
A. domain administrator
B. backup operator
C. create a token object
D. administrative network
E. event viewer operator
Answer: ABC

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NO.29 With which two backup methods can the option "use the Microsoft Change Journal if available" be
used? (Select two.)
A. archive
B. incremental
C. differential
D. working set
Answer: BC

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NO.30 You need to restore data from a family of three tapes. The first tape is missing.
Which option should you change to allow the remaining tapes to be cataloged?
A. "Request all media in the sequence for catalog operations"
B. "Use storage media-based catalogs"
C. "Enable direct access recovery"
D. "Associate media with 'Imported Media' media set"
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ST0-057
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas NBU PureDisk 6.5 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

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NO.1 From which two optional locations can PureDisk retrieve user information? (Select two.)
A. Internal LDAP
B. Active Directory
C. System Password File
D. PureDisk Authority Directory
Answer: AB

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NO.2 Multiple nodes have been configured with the Topology Wizard.
Which script will push out the software to these nodes?
A. install_newStoragePool.sh
B. enc_topology.sh
C. update_topology.sh
D. add_onNode.sh
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which feature does PureDisk enable by using a CIFS interface?
A. direct access to backup data
B. NetBackup integration
C. data security and encryption
D. central management
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which component must be installed within a PureDisk storage pool?
A. workflow controller
B. CIFS interface
C. NetBackup export engine
D. content router
Answer: D

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NO.5 How many terabytes of data in PureDisk 6.5 can be stored per content router in the storage pool?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which version of Veritas Volume Manager is included with a PureDisk 6.5 installation?
A. 4.0
B. 4.1
C. 5.0
D. 5.1
Answer: B

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NO.7 On which three operating systems does NetBackup support running the PureDisk 6.5 deduplication
option? (Select three.)
A. Windows Server 2000
B. Solaris 9
C. Linux
D. HP/UX
E. IBM AIX
Answer: ABC

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NO.8 At which component level does PureDisk provide for bandwidth efficiency by deduplicating data?
A. client
B. storage pool authority
C. content router
D. metabase engine
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is created in PureDisk by using an MD5 algorithm?
A. fingerprint
B. data object
C. workflow object
D. segment
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which key feature of PureDisk 6.5 depends on the client communicating with the storage pool to
determine whether data is already stored?
A. data security and encryption
B. global deduplication
C. fast access to backup data
D. central management
Answer: B

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NO.11 By default, a storage pool with a single metabase engine is limited to how many clients?
A. 256
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 2048
Answer: C

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NO.12 When installing a PureDisk agent, unless you specify a location or department, where does PureDisk
place the client agent?
A. Central SPA location and department
B. Default Agents
C. Unknown location and Unknown department
D. Unknown Agents
Answer: C

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NO.13 On which component in the PureDisk architecture does grouping clients with similar data improve
deduplication?
A. storage pool authority
B. metabase server
C. content router
D. repository manager
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which service can be added to an existing storage pool to increase the amount of data stored in the
environment?
A. metabase engine
B. content router
C. metabase server
D. repository manager
E. workflow controller
Answer: B

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NO.15 When backing up a new file, which information is sent that describes that file's attributes?
A. metadata
B. path object
C. data object
D. segment data
Answer: A

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NO.16 By default, where does PureDisk provide for data security by encrypting the data?
A. content router
B. storage pool authority
C. client
D. metabase engine
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which application is newly supported in version 6.5 of PureDisk?
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
B. Microsoft Exchange 2007
C. Oracle 11i DBMS
D. Microsoft Message Queue
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which is an optional component that can be installed within a PureDisk storage pool?
A. metabase engine
B. content router
C. NetBackup export engine
D. controller
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which two components can be added to increase the size of the PureDisk storage pool? (Select two.)
A. metabase engine
B. content router
C. client agents
D. NetBackup export engine
E. storage pool authority
Answer: AB

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NO.20 Which data has the default size of 128 KB?
A. data object
B. fingerprint
C. segment
D. workflow object
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 250-401
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.0 with Notification Server)
Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent and
stores it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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NO.2 Refer to the Exhibit.
What is the effect of setting the scoped option when building a report query?
A. The report results will be limited to the resources that the user has permissions to view.
B. The users will be unable to bring up the Resource Manager by right-clicking on a row in the report
results
C. The available data classes will be limited to those that the user has permissions to view.
D. The users will be unable to drill-down to lower levels when viewing the report results.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which permissions do new security roles have?
A. the same permissions as the Symantec Administrators role
B. the same permissions as the Symantec Guests role
C. the same permissions as the Symantec Supervisors role
D. none
Answer: D

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NO.4 During installation of the Symantec Management Platform 7.0 (SMP), an administrator specifies an
account created for SMP to be used as the Application Identity. When the administrator tries to connect to
the console from their workstation they receive an Access Denied message.
Why is the administrator's access denied?
A. The account used to install is the only account in the Symantec Administrators Group.
B. The account used during installation has NOT been added to the Domain Administrators Group.
C. The system administrator is using an account that is not a member of the Domain Administrators
Group.
D. The console must be run from a terminal services session of the Notification Server.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Two administrators run the same report that displays Windows XP SP1 workstations imported from
Active Directory. The North America Symantec Administrator returns 2,500 workstations. The Marketing
Manager returns 500 workstations. When they compare the results, they find that there is an overlap of
100 workstations.
Why is there an overlap in the reports?
A. because the workstations belong to multiple organizational groups in same organizational view.
B. because the workstations belong to organizational groups in separate organizational views
C. because of workstation security privilege intersection
D. because of workstation security role filters
Answer: B

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NO.6 How does the Symantec Management Console help keep reports secure and scoped?
A. by enforcing permissions that determine which reports users can view
B. by scoping privileges that determine which reports users can view
C. by using report filters so that only specific report data is displayed
D. by promptingAltiris Agents for log in credentials before viewing reports
Answer: A

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NO.7 Refer to the Exhibit.
The administrator created a report that returns the status of computers.
Which menu item should the administrator choose to compare the status from month to month?
A. Snapshot
B. Web Part
C. Static Filter
D. XML File
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the first point of contact for the Altiris Agent?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Console
C. Package Service
D. Task Service
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two tabs are used to modify security roles in the Symantec Management Console? (Select two.)
A. Permissions
B. Privileges
C. Rights
D. Security
E. Membership
Answer: B,E

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NO.10 Refer to the Exhibit.
An administrator has cloned the Daily Event report. What must the administrator change to create a
Weekly Event report?
A. edit the Query Parameters to show a week of data
B. edit thedateadd(day, -1 @cutoffdate) section
C. edit the Resolved Query to show a week of data
D. edit the views on the Views tab
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which component contains the core service of the Symantec Management Platform?
A. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
B. Altiris Agent
C. Site Service
D. Notification Server
Answer: D

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NO.12 The IT Department has been experiencing frequent turnover requiring administrators to modify security
role membership on an individual user basis An administrator wants to take advantage of membership
assignments established when new users are created in the network environment and connect them to
security roles. Which resource can be used in the Membership tab to allow user assignments to be
managed independently of the Security Role Manager?
A. Active Directory Security groups
B. Active Directory organizational units
C. Altiris Security Users
D. Altiris Security Groups
Answer: A

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NO.13 What are two ways that permissions are set within the Security Role Manager? (Select two.)
A. security role membership
B. NT rights assignment
C. inheritance
D. explicitly granted
E. domain membership
Answer: C,D

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NO.14 The IT staff for a large corporation is distributed among its many physical sites. The Symantec
Management Platform administrator needs to ensure that the local IT staff for any given location only has
rights to manage computers at that location and not at any other location.
Which two items must the administrator create and assign the appropriate rights to? (Select two.)
A. filter
B. organizational group
C. site
D. organizational view
E. collection
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 Why would an administrator want to save a report as a web part?
A. to save the results for later reference
B. to use in a resource target
C. to use in a portal page
D. to be able to e-mail the results
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which component enables users to view data from the Configuration Management Database
(CMDB)?
A. Log Viewer
B. Reports
C. Notification Server
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: B

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NO.17 How is resource scoping implemented?
A. by including appropriate filters and organizational views and groups in a target's rules
B. by replacing filters and organizational views and groups in a target with appropriate secured data
classes C. by creating multiple organizational views and groups that contain appropriate subset of
resources
D. by granting permissions to appropriate organizational views and groups to a security role
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to theAltiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification Server
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

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NO.19 A manager is attempting to run a report that identifies users who have Microsoft Office and Adobe
software installed, but the report fails to run What is the first thing the administrator should do?
A. check the report for errors
B. check the manager's permissions
C. remove security from the report
D. clone and modify the report
Answer: B

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NO.20 An Administrator wants to customize the default Symantec Administrators security role for use as a new
template for future console administrators Upon selection, the options are grayed out and inaccessible.
Which action should the administrator take to modify these privileges?
A. break inheritance to parent roles
B. take ownership of the role
C. clone the role and modify the copy
D. use a different credential with more permissions
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: ST0-12X
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas Cluster Server 5 for Unix(STS))
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 You have a service group dependency:
If the child group faults, the parent group is taken offline. If the parent group faults, the child group remains
online. Which type of dependency is this an example of?
A. firm
B. hard
C. son
D. remote
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which resource is NOT considered by Veritas Cluster Server when determining whether a service
group is online or not?
A. onOnly
B. OnOff
C. failover
D. parallel
Answer: A

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NO.3 You stopped Veritas Cluster Server on a system and completely removed the system from the Veritas
Cluster Server configuration. You now need to stop the GAB driver without shutting down the system.
Which command accomplishes this?
A. gabconfig-U
B. gabetl stop
C. gab-stop
D. gabdaemon uninstall
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have a three-system cluster.
The cluster runs an application that depends on a database.
The application and database do not need to run on the same system.
If the database faults, you want the application to continue to run, unless the database cannot be
restarted on another system. Which type of service group dependency do you create to ensure this
behavior?
A. online global son, where the database is the parent
B. online global soft, where the application is the parent
C. online global firm, where the application is the parent
D. online global firm, where the database is the parent
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are adding a system named Systemc to an existing two-system cluster.
What must you do atter installing Veritas Cluster Server and configuring cluster communications on the
new system?
A. run hastart -newnode on the new system
B. run hasys -frorce System C on the new system
C. run haclus -adonode SystemC on any system
D. run hastart on the new system
Answer: D

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NO.6 How do you customize Veritas Cluster Server default behavior to alert someone whenever there is only
one heartbeat in a Veritas Cluster Server cluster?
A. The preinstalled violation trigger does this with no customization required.
B. Install the injeopardy trigger and customize it to perform the required alerting.
C. Configure the notifier to execute a customized script to perform the required alerting.
D. Develop a custom resource type and agent to monitor the Veritas Cluster Server heartbeat resources.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You need to remove the system named node04 from a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster.
What is the command to failover any service groups running, then stop Veritas Cluster Server on that
system?
A. hastop -sys node04 -evacuate
B. haevac -remove -sys node04
C. haconf -stop -evac -sys node04
D. hasys node04 -local -failover -stop
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two are valid settings for FailoverPolicy? (Choose two.)
A. priority
B. RoundRobin
C. Order
D. Failover
E. SystemUst
Answer: A B

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NO.9 What does the Veritas Cluster Server Cluster Manager Web Console require for high availability?
A. notification set to 0
B. a Microson Windows workstation
C. the vcsweb user account
D. a virtuallP address
Answer: D

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NO.10 What should be expected during a failover when a service group is partially ONLINE?
A. The service group will become fully ONLINE on the target system.
B. The service group will become partially ONLINE on the target system.
C. The service group will go OFFLINE and remain OFFLINE.
D. The service group will become OFFLINE temporarily on the target system.
Answer: B

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NO.11 whicn feature of Veritas Cluster Server allows you to keep applications in separate groups while still
allowing control of the order they start?
A. service group dependencies
B. complementary events
C. replicated data clusters
D. notifications
Answer: A

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NO.12 A legacy managed host is a system managed by Storage Foundation Management Server and runs
__ .
A. Storage Foundation 4.x
B. Foundation Suite 3.x
C. Storage Replicator 4.x
D. Veritas Enterprise Administrator 3.x
Answer: A

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NO.13 You stopped Veritas Cluster Server on system node13. You now need to remove this node from the
cluster configuration. When you attempt to do this, you get an error message. What could cause this
error?
A. One or more system List attributes still contains node13.
B. Veritas Cluster Server must be completely shut down on all nodes.
C. The LL T driver on node13 was not stopped.
D. The GAB daemon on node13 was not stopped.
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is a characteristic of Veritas Cluster Server service group dependencies?
A. Each parent service group can link with only three child service groups; however, a child service group
is not limited to the number of links to parent service groups.
B. If a parent service group with an online local firm group dependency faults, it will take the
corresponding child
C. A child service group will remain online if the dependent parent service group with an online local firm
group dependency faults.
D. A service group cannot be a child service group if its parent service group is a child of another group.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which network resource combination would you use for failovers of virtual IP addresses across
interfaces on a single system when NICs are connected to different subnets?
A. IP/NIC
B. IPMultiNIC/MultiNICA
C. IPMultiNICB/MultiNICB
D. IPMultiNICC/MultiNICC
Answer: B

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NO.16 You are designing a large Veritas Cluster Server cluster. One of the requirements from the service
level agreement is that applications will be automatically moved from one system to another if the first
system's processor usage exceeds a configured threshold value.
Which component do you incorporate into the design to accomplish this?
A. ToleranceLimit service group attribute
B. Load failover policy
C. cpuusage trigger
D. UseCPU cluster attribute
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is the location of the main Veritas Cluster Server configuration file?
A. /op/VRTSvcs/conf/config/
B. /etc/VRTSvcs/conf/
C./etc/VRTSvcs/conf/config/
D. /op/VRTSvcs/confi
Answer: C

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NO.18 A Veritas Cluster Server design calls for a failover database service group and a failover middleware
service group to be dependent on each other such that the database and middleware are always running
on the same system.
Which type of service group dependency satisfies this design requirement?
A. online local
B. online remote
C. online global
D. online together
Answer: A

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NO.19 what are two characteristics of a nard service group dependency? (choose two.)
A. Both parent and child groups fail over if a critical resource in the child group faults.
B. Only online local hard dependencies are supported.
C. If a critical resource in the parent group faults, the child group is taken offline before the parent group.
D. Bringing the parent online is allowed if the child is offline.
E. Only two parents and one child o group can be configured in a nard dependency.
Answer: A B

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NO.20 During a test of a NIC resource, the Veritas Cluster Server engine log indicates that the service group
and the IP resource enter the FAULTED state on all systems in the cluster. The NIC resource enters the
ONLINE state atter the root cause of the fault is corrected.
Which default attribute setting allows the service group to attempt to start without manual intervention?
A. AutoStart
B. AutoClear
C. AutoRestart
D. AutoFailover
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: ST0-095
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Technical Foundations: Security Solutions 1.0 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 207 Q&As

ST0-095 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/ST0-095.html

NO.1 What is a key benefit of integrating multiple security-related solutions?
A. automates administration across multiple security solutions
B. develops IT security policies across security solutions
C. consolidates critical data from separate security solutions
D. enforces user policies across unrelated security solutions
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are most organizations concerned with when looking at risk as it relates to impact on an asset?
A. downtime B: . revenue
C. response time
D. exposure
Answer: B

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NO.3 A cybercriminal wants to break into an organization using a SOL injection attack. What will the
cybercriminal do to start the attack?
A. enter a command at a user prompt
B. locate a user input field on the company's web page
C. gain administrative access to the database
D. use SOL slammer malware
Answer: B

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NO.4 An employee has installed a video game on their company-issued laptop. Which Symantec solution
can prevent this installation in the future?
A. Altiris IT Management Suite
B. Endpoint Encryption
C. Brightmail Gateway
D. Security Information Manager
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator wants to identify and monitor systems with weak or static passwords. Which
Symantec solution can help collect this information?
A. Data Loss Prevention
B. Endpoint Protection
C. Critical System Protection
D. Control compliance Suite
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is a critical success factor when implementing workflow software?
A. It should work well with application integration software.
B. It should work well with web security software.
C. It should work well with bug tracking infrastructure.
D. It should work well with network access controls.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which framework is used to manage change within an IT organization?
A. Management of Risk (MOR)
B. Information Technology Asset Management (IT AM)
C. Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)
D. Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (CobiT)
Answer: C

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NO.8 What should be in place before automatically blocking confidential data leaving the organization?
A. hard drive encryption
B. well-refined data loss policies
C. email message encryption
D. endpoint management software
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which type of attack would be most successful against the password T63k#s23A?
A. cross site scripting
B. brute-force
C. dictionary
D.SOL injection
Answer: B

Symantec examen   ST0-095   ST0-095   ST0-095

NO.10 Which WO topics did Art Gilliland state in the Security Solutions 1.0 course as areas that Symantec
plans to invest in? (Select WO.)
A. reputation-based security
B. identity management
C. cryptography
D. cross-product management and reporting
E. security of social networkinq sites
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 What is one of the benefits of the assessment step within the security policylifecycle, according to the
Security Solutions 1.0 course?
A. It provides the actionable configuration standards.
B. It allows organizations to understand where critical assets reside.
C. It educates the employees and manages the enforcement of a products.
D. It analyzes the policythrough interviews.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What does the Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (CobiT) framework focus
on, according to the Security Solutions 1.0 course?
A. IT implementation life cycle
B. computer security concepts
C. international security procedures for audit
D. confidentiality. integrity, and availability
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-095   ST0-095

NO.13 What is the primary purpose of change control in the context of security?
A. to apply changes that increase security posture
B. to prevent changes from decreasing security posture
C. to automatically apply security changes on a set schedule
D. to automatically undo changes that cause security problem
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which two questions are appropriate to ask a customer in order to uncover a need for Symantec
Control Compliance Suite? (Select two.)
A. Are you meeting your required backup windows?
B. Have you recently gone through a merger or acquisition, requiring new entitlements and controls?
C. Do you need to archive email for legal discovery purposes?
D. Is your operations team struggling to keep on top of IT audit-related tasks? DE. Do you need to ensure
critical servers are deployed by authorized personnel?
1linimize
Answer:

NO.15 Malware that contains a backdoor is placed on a system that will later be used by the cybercriminal to
gain access to the system. The cybercriminal was successful in which phase of the breach?
A: capture
B: discovery
C: incursion
D: exfiltration
Answer: C

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NO.16 What do software patches affect within a company's environment?
A. applications only
B. operating systems only
C. operating systems and applications only
D. operating systems. applications. and hardware configurations
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which Symantec solution can identify and block a malicious file from being downloaded in an HTTP
session?
A. Web Gateway
B. Brightmail Gateway
C. Network Access Control
D. Critical System Protection
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is a benefit of a security awareness program, according to the Security Solutions 1.0 course?
A. It provides an understanding of current system security settings.
B. It allows the organization to understand where critical systems reside.
C. It provides an understanding of the operational costs of security.
D. It ensures that employees understand their roles and responsibilities.
Answer:

NO.19 Which challenge does security information and event management (SIEM) help solve for customers?
A. monitoring for performance problem on servers
B. monitoring configuration changes in applications
C. monitoring for business compliance issues
D. monitoring for security violations
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is the primary benefit of a people-based workflow solution?
A. business process creation
B. centrally managed collaboration
C. coordination of web services
D. user-based task assignment
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which two benefits does patch management provide an organization? (Select two.)
A. modifies usability or performance of a computer
B. removes vulnerabilities through software fixes
C. updates operating systems and ensures compliance
D. migrates the operating system
E. counts software licenses installed
Answer: B,C

Symantec examen   certification ST0-095   ST0-095   ST0-095

NO.22 An employee's computer was recently infected by a virus due to opening an attachment received
through email. Which Symantec solution could have prevented this?
A. Brightmail Traffic Shaper
B. Brightmail Gateway
C. Network Access Control
D. Data Loss Prevention
Answer: B

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NO.23 How does a denial of service attack work?
A. It attempts to break the authentication mode.
B. It imitates the behavior of a valid user.
C. It cracks passwords, causing the system to crash.
D. It prevents a legitimate user from using a system or service.
Answer: D

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NO.24 How do the security program approaches rank in order from least mature to most mature?
A. compliance, risk, IT security
B. risk. compliance, IT security
C. IT security, compliance, risk
D. IT security, risk, compliance
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which type of breach source is Albert Gonzalez, as mentioned in the Security Solutions 1.0 course?
A. well-meaning insider
B. malicious insider
C. cybercriminal
D. disgruntled employee
Answer: C

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NO.26 What is the purpose of defining a technical standard?
A. to identify minimum system configuration requirements for assets
B. to define roles and responsibilities within an organization
C. to create documented exceptions or waivers to a policy
D. to implement the guidelines directed by management
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-095   ST0-095   ST0-095

NO.27 What is the primary goal when creating a security products?
A. to assist in the compliance process
B. to ensure systems have updated patches
C. to protect information
D. to report on system configuration
Answer: C

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NO.28 What are traditional, definition-based malware scanning technologies unable to identify?
A. new or unique threats unless a sample has been submitted
B. older threats or threats that are inactive in the wild
C. polymorphic threats that have been discovered in an antivirus lab
D. threats that are written to temporary locations in storage
Answer:

NO.29 customer is experiencing image-based spam and phishing attacks that are negatively impacting
messaging flow. Which Symantec solution should be recommended to this customer?
A. Brightmail Gateway
B. Endpoint Protection
C. Network Access Control
D. Backup Exec System Recovery
Answer: A

Symantec examen   ST0-095   ST0-095   ST0-095   ST0-095

NO.30 Which WO events could potentially be seen by a network monitoring solution in the context of
information protection? (Select WO.)
A. a program storing social security numbers in a SOL database
B. a hacker exfiltrating data out of an organization
C. a malicious insider emailing data out of an organization
D. an employee on their home ISP webmailing confidential data
E. an administrator incorrectly configuring email servers
Answer: B,C

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