Microsoft meilleur examen 70-665, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 70-665
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (PRO:Microsoft Lync Server 2010,Administrator)
Questions et réponses: 85 Q&As

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NO.1 You need to recommend changes to the existing environment to support the planned Lync 2010 Phone
Edition devices. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Modifications to the DHCP options
B. Modifications to the NTP server configuration
C. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS)
D. Kerberos authentication on the Front End Servers
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are evaluating the implementation of a SIP trunk in the main office to support the planned Lync
Server 2010 deployment. You need to calculate the minimum amount of bandwidth required for PSTN
calls. How much bandwidth is required on the network connection to the SIP trunk?
A. 33.98 Mbps
B. 58.40 Mbps
C. 41.80 Mbps
D. 25.29 Mbps
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your network has Microsoft Office Communications Server 2007 R2 installed. You migrate the Office
Communications Server 2007 R2 infrastructure to Lync Server 2010. The network contains 2,000 users
who use Microsoft Lync 2010 and 100 users who use Microsoft Office Communicator 2007 R2. The
corporate security policy states that when users sign in, they must restrict their presence information so
that it is visible to only their contacts. You need to recommend changes to the Lync Server 2010
infrastructure to meet the corporate security policy requirements. What should you include in the
recommendation?
A. a Monitoring Server and a Client Version Policy
B. Privacy Mode and a Client Version Policy
C. a Monitoring Server and a Client Version Configuration
D. Privacy Mode and a Response Group
Answer: B

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NO.4 You need to recommend a Lync Server 2010 deployment solution that meets the company availability
requirements for the Detroit office. What should you recommend?
A. Deploy a Standard Edition server and a PSTN gateway in the Detroit office. Deploy an Enterprise
Edition server and a PSTN gateway in the Seattle data center. Assign the Standard Edition server as the
primary registrar. Assign the Enterprise Edition server as the backup registrar.
B. Deploy a Standard Edition server and a PSTN gateway in the Seattle data centers. Deploy a
Survivable Branch Server in the Detroit office. Assign the Survivable Branch Server as the primary
registrar. Assign the Standard Edition server as the backup registrar.
C. Deploy an Enterprise Edition server and a PSTN gateway in the Seattle data centers. Deploy a
Standard Edition server in the Detroit office. Assign the Standard Edition server as the primary registrar.
Assign the Enterprise Edition server as the backup registrar.
D. Deploy a Standard Edition server and a PSTN gateway in the Seattle data centers. Deploy a
Survivable Branch Appliance (SBA) in the Detroit office. Assign the SBA as the primary registrar. Assign
the Standard Edition server as the backup registrar.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You need to recommend an Enterprise Voice solution for the New York office. What should you include
in the recommendation?
A. a Response Group
B. the Attendant Console
C. a dial plan
D. an IP-PBX gateway
Answer: C

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NO.6 Topic 1, A.Datum Corporation
Company Overview
A. Datum Corporation is a market research company that has 6,000 employees.
Physical Location
The company has a main office and two branch offices. The main office is located in Seattle. The branch
offices are located in Detroit and New York. The main office has 5,000 users. The Detroit office has 900
users. The New York office has 100 users.
Remote users frequently work from locations that only allow Internet access over ports 80 and 443. The
remote users frequently work from client computers that are not joined to the domain.
Existing Environment
Network Infrastructure
The network has the following servers:
An enterprise certification authority (CA)
A DHCP server has that the following DHCP options:
o 003 Router
o 006 DNS Servers
o 015 DNS Domain Name
A Network Time Protocol (NTP) server that is configured to use the User Datagram Protocol
(UDP)
A server in the main office that runs Microsoft Office Communications Server 2007
The network has the following configurations:
All client computers run Microsoft Office Communicator 2007.
AH Internet-accessible servers are located in a perimeter network.
Microsoft Forefront Threat Management Gateway (TMG) is used to publish internal Web sites for
customers.
All servers that have Office Communications Server installed run Windows Server 2003 Service
Pack 2 (SP2).
Telephony Infrastructure
Telephony Infrastructure
The telephony infrastructure is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Case Study Exhibits button.)
Requirements
Business Goals
A. Datum has the following business goals:
Minimize software costs.
Minimize hardware costs.
Minimize the amount of administrative effort required to deploy new technology solutions.
Planned Changes
A. Datum plans to migrate to Lync Server 2010 and implement the following changes:
Enable Enterprise Voice for all internal users and remote users.
In the main office, deploy devices that run Microsoft Lync 2010 Phone Edition.
Enable IM, presence, and conferencing with a federated partner company named Contoso, Ltd.
Create a Lync site for each office.
Add the primary data center and the secondary data center to the Seattle Lync site.
Technical Requirements
A. Datum must meet the following technical requirements:
The number of public IP addresses must be minimized.
The main office must support 1,000 concurrent PSTN calls.
Lync services must be available to remote users over TCP port 443.
Remote users must be able to participate in conferences and make Enterprise Voice calls.
Telephony Requirements
The telephony infrastructure must meet the requirements shown in the following table.
Each office will contain users who are assigned the Manager role and the Employees role.
Security Requirements
A. Datum must meet the following security requirements:
Federation must only be allowed with Contoso.
Lync-related traffic must not be routed over VPN connections
Availability Requirements
If a data center fails, all users in the main office must be able to perform the following tasks
Create a conference.
Place calls to the PSTN.
View the presence status of all users in the Seattle office.
If a WAN link fails, users in the Detroit office must be able to perform the following tasks:
Create a conference.
Place calls to the PSTN.
View the presence status of all users in the Detroit office.
Reference Data
The typical bandwidth utilization for various codecs is listed in the following table.
A T1 interface supports 23 concurrent calls
1.You are evaluating the use of standard gateway devices that support eight T1 interfaces each. The
gateways do not support media bypass.
You need to recommend a solution to support PSTN calls from the main office. The solution must meet
the company technical requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Deploy four gateways and a single Mediation pool that contains two servers.
B. Deploy six gateways and a single Mediation pool that contains six servers.
C. Deploy four gateways and two Mediation pools that each contains a single server.
D. Deploy six gateways and a single Mediation pool that contains two servers.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The functional level of both the domain and the forest
is Windows Server 2003. The forest contains the following servers:
A server that runs Microsoft Live Communications Server 2005 Service Pack 1 (SP1)
A Front End Server that runs Microsoft Office Communications Server 2007 R2
An Edge Server that runs Office Communications Server 2007 R2
A Mediation Server that runs Office Communications Server 2007 R2
An Office Communications Server 2007 Communicator Web Access (CWA) server
You plan to migrate all users to Lync Server 2010. You need to recommend changes to the network to
ensure that you can deploy Lync Server 2010 to the Active Directory forest. What should you
recommend?
A. Raise the functional level of the domain to Windows Server 2008.
B. Remove the Live Communications Server 2005 server and the CWA server.
C. Remove the CWA server and the Edge Server.
D. Raise the functional level of the forest to Windows Server 2008.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You need to recommend an Enterprise Voice solution that meets the company telephony requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Create three User Voice Policies. In the User Voice Policies, configure the calling features and the call
types.
B. Create three Site Voice Policies. In the Site Voice Policies, configure the calling features and the call
types.
C. Create three User Voice Policies and one Site Voice Policy. In the User Voice Policies, configure the
calling features. In the Site Voice Policy, configure the call types.
D. Create three User Voice Policies and one Site Voice Policy. In the User Voice Policies, configure the
call types. In the Site Voice Policy, configure the calling features.
Answer: B

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NO.9 You need to recommend a backup solution for the configuration store of the Lync Server 2010
deployment. Which database should you include in the recommendation?
A. RTCLocal\rtc
B. RTCLocal\rtcdyn
C. RTC\xds
D. RTC\rtc
Answer: D

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NO.10 You need to recommend a certificate for the external interface of the Edge pool. Which certificate should
you recommend?
A. a certificate that contains one FQDN from the internal CA
B. a certificate that contains a wildcard from the internal CA
C. a certificate that contains multiple FQDNs from a trusted third-party CA
D. a certificate that contains a wildcard from a trusted third-party CA
Answer: C

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Dernières Microsoft MB7-842 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: MB7-842
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (NAV 2009 Trade & Inventory)
Questions et réponses: 89 Q&As

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NO.1 When setting up Item Tracking Codes, users can determine many settings that control data entry
requirements. What data entry requirements can be controlled through setups on the Item Tracking Code
Card?
Choose the 3 that apply.
A. Whether serial numbers or lot numbers are required for inbound transactions.
B. Whether serial numbers or lot numbers are required for outbound transactions.
C. Whether manual entry of warranty and expiration dates is required.
D. Whether auto selection of serial and lot numbers according to FEFO is activated.
Answer: ABC

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NO.2 During sales order entry, an order processor selects an item, location, and quantity. What happens in
Microsoft Dynamics?NAV 2009 when an insufficient quantity of the item is at the specified location?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A. To prevent negative inventory quantities, the user is not able to save the line for the quantity specified.
B. A Warning Icon displays on the sales line, indicating that there is insufficient Quantity on Hand for the
item at the selected location.
C. The Sales Line Details Fact Box displays the quantity available for the item and selected location,
resulting in a negative number.
D. If the Stockout Warning check box is selected in Sales & Receivables Setup, a Stockout Warning
displays.
Answer: CD

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NO.3 When you enter a Sales Quote and the customer decides not to place the order, what feature might you
select to store the Sales Quote for future reference?
A. Store Quote
B. Make Customer Copy
C. Archive Document
D. Save to History
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which batch job can be used to raise the unit price on all items by 10%?
A. Implement Price Change
B. Post Inventory Cost to G/L
C. Adjust Cost - Item Entries
D. Adjust Item Cost/Prices
Answer: D

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NO.5 When you use Sales Orders and Sales Blanket Orders, the related documents are linked to one
another by their document numbers.
What options are available for establishing links between Sales Orders and Sales Blanket Orders?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A. When a Sales Order is entered directly, enter the Sales Order number in the Sales Order No. field on
the related Sales Blanket Order line.
B. When a Sales Order is created using the Make Order action, the Sales Blanket Order number and line
number are copied to the Sales line.
C. When a Sales Order is entered directly, enter the Sales Blanket Order number in the Sales Blanket
Order No. field on the related sales line.
D. When a Sales Order is entered directly, enter the Sales Blanket Order number in the Sales Blanket
Order No. field on the sales header.
Answer: BC

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NO.6 You are the consultant on a Microsoft Dynamics?NAV 2009 implementation.
You have completed a demonstration of posting shipments from Sales Orders. During the related
discussion, your client indicates that his or her current process has the Quantity to Ship field default to
blank and then requires the user to enter the actual quantity shipped. The client asks you how Microsoft
Dynamics NAV 2009 can meet this requirement.
What advice do you give your client?
A. Make a programming change to default the Quantity to Ship to blank on Sales Order lines.
B. Modify the current process so that users are required to only update lines where quantities are shipped
incomplete.
C. In the Default Quantity to Ship field on the Shipping FastTab of the Sales Order, select the option for
'blank'.
D. In the Default Quantity to Ship field on the Sales & Receivables Setup page, select the option for
'blank'.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are the consultant on a Microsoft Dynamics?NAV 2009 implementation.
You have determined through discussions that your client offers a customer an invoice discount of 2%
when the total invoice amount exceeds 20,000 LCY.
What setup do you advise your client to complete in Microsoft Dynamics NAV to accommodate the
discount?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A. On the Invoicing FastTab of the Customer Card, leave the default selection for the Invoice Discount
Code.
B. On the Cust. Invoice Discounts page for the Customer Card, enter a line with Currency Code equal to
blank, Minimum Amount of 20,000, and Discount% of 2.
C. On the Invoicing FastTab of the Customer Card, assign the relevant Customer Discount Group.
D. On the Invoicing FastTab of the Customer Card, select the Manually Calculate Invoice Discounts check
box.
Answer: AB

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NO.8 You are the consultant on a Microsoft Dynamics?NAV 2009 implementation.
As part of a review of business requirements, you are discussing purchase discounts with your client. You
determine that your client offers line discounts. In addition, your client posts the discount amounts to
separate general ledger accounts.
What setup is required to use line discounts and post them separately from purchases?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A. In the Payment Disc. fields on the Vendor Posting Groups page, select an account from the Chart of
Accounts.
B. In the Purchase Line Disc. Account field of the General Posting Setup page, select an account from the
Chart of Accounts.
C. On the General FastTab of the Purchases & Payables Setup page, select Line Discounts in the
Discount Posting field.
D. On the General FastTab of the Purchases & Payables Setup page, select the Post Line Discounts
check box.
Answer: BC

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NO.9 You are the consultant on a Microsoft Dynamics?NAV 2009 implementation.
Your client wants to set up special pricing for their commercial customers. They have already set up a
Customer Price Group named COMMERCIAL.
What additional setup steps do you provide to your client to satisfy their pricing requirement?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A. Select the Use Customer Price Groups check box in Sales and Receivables Setup.
B. Assign the COMMERCIAL Customer Price Group on the Invoicing FastTab of the appropriate
Customer Cards.
C. Enter the percentage discount for the COMMERCIAL Customer Price Group in the Sales Prices page.
D. Add lines to the Sales Prices page for the COMMERCIAL Customer Price Group with the appropriate
Item, Unit of Measure, Quantity, and Unit Price.
Answer: BD

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NO.10 You are the consultant on a Microsoft Dynamics?NAV 2009 implementation.
Your client is completing tests of the sales order entry process; they enter a sales line quantity of 225 units.
According to an agreement with their customer, your client intends to post a partial shipment of 100 units
and an invoice of 50 units for the sales line.
Your client is unsure what amounts should display in the Quantity to Ship, Quantity Shipped, Quantity to
Invoice, and Quantity Invoiced fields prior to posting the sales line.
What amounts should display in the fields?
A. Quantity to Ship = 0; Quantity Shipped = 100; Quantity to Invoice = 0; Quantity Invoiced = 50
B. Quantity to Ship = 100; Quantity Shipped = 0; Quantity to Invoice = 50; Quantity Invoiced = 0
C. Quantity to Ship = 100; Quantity Shipped = 100; Quantity to Invoice = 50; Quantity Invoiced = 50
D. Quantity to Ship = 125; Quantity Shipped = 100; Quantity to Invoice = 175; Quantity Invoiced = 50
Answer: B

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NO.1 管理者は、 ローカ ル· デゖスクを含まないブレード· サーバーの ESXi の 5.x のを展開する
予定です。
どのブーツ? オプションがローカル? デゖスクの代わりの使用のためにサポートされますか。
( 三つ選んでください。)
A. SD カード
B. iBFT を備えた NIC
C. 自動配備
D. IPMI または iLO を持ったサーバー
E. 専用 NFS シェゕ
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 管理者は、 ESXi ホ ストが vCenter Server で管理することができないことを検出しました。
どのログが DCUI を使用してレビューすることができますか？( 三つ選んでください。)
A. システムのログ
B. コンフゖグ? ログ
C. 仮想中心代理人
D. ESXi のシェルのログ
E. VMware HA のログ
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 vCenter は、クラ スタの会員でない ESXi 5.x ホストに関する接続問 題を報告しました。
管理者は、 vSphere ク ラ゗ゕントを使用して、 ホストに直接接続することを試みますが、 「未
知の接続エラーが生じた」というメッセージが表示されて失敗しました。
ホスト上で実行中の仮想マシンが実行されているように見えて、問題を報告していません。
どの 2 つの方法が仮想マシンに影響を与えずに問題を解決できるのでしょうか。( 二つ選ん
でください。)
A. SSH あるいはローカ ル CLI のいずれかからサービス mgmt-vmware 再起動のコマンドを 入力
する。
B. 直接コンソール? ユーザ? ゗ンターフェース(DCUI) でリスタート管理エージェントを選択
する。
C. 直接コンソール? ユ ーザ? ゗ンターフェース(DCUI) 中のリブート? ホストを選択する。
D. SSH あるいはローカ ル CLI のいずれかから services.sh 再始動コマンドを入力する。
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 仮想マシンの電源が資源プールの内 部 で切られる場合、資 源 プールの子が利用で き る
ェゕの総数はどうなるのでしょうか。
A. 同じまま
B. 減少
C. 増加
D. カスタムシェゕ値 が設定されている場合のみ、それは同じままであ る。
Answer: B

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NO.5 どの vSwitch か vSwitch ポート? グループ政策セッテゖングは形成された MAC ゕド レス
とは異 なっ てい る目的地 MAC ゕ ドレ スを 備 えたバ ーチ ャル? マシ ンによ って パケ ット が 受
け取られることを可能にしますか。
A. プロミスキャスモード
B. トラフゖック? シェ ーピング
C. 鍛造された送信
D. MAC ゕドレス変更
Answer: D

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NO.6 クラスタが管理 する vSphere のストレ ージゕプラ゗ゕンス（VSA ）の IP ゕドレスはど
こにありますか。
A. ウェブ? ベースのポータルを使用する各 VSA ゕプラ゗ゕンス上
B. クラスタホステゖ ング VSA 用の VSA マネ ージャタブで
C. ウェブ? ベースのポ ータルを使用する VSA マネージャーゕプラ゗ゕンス上
D. VSA ホストに゗ンス トールした vCenter サ ーバー上
Answer: B

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NO.7 記憶管理者は記憶配列上のジャンボ フ レームおよび有効な ジ ャンボフレームの性 能 の
利点をテストすることをゕドバ゗スしました。VMware 管理者は、 ソフトウェゕ iSCSI 開始
者に使用された VMkernel ポ ー ト 上 の ジ ャ ン ボ フ レ ー ム を 有 効 に し ま し た 。 ソ フ ト ウ ェ ゕ
iSCSI 開始者のジャンボフレーム支援を有効にするために他のどの 2 つのコンポーネントを
修正しなければなりませんか。( 二つ選んでください。)
A. 物理的なス゗ッチ
B. ポート? グループ
C. ソフトウェゕ開始 者
D. 仮想ス゗ッチ
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 テンプレートへ の仮想マシンのク ローンを作る場合、 下記のリストからのどの二つの
属性を目的地仮想デゖスクのために変更することができますか。( 二つ選んでください。)
A. 仮想デゖスクのフォーマット
B. ネットワーク? ゕダ プタの数
C. IP ゕドレス
D. 仮想マシンのフゔ ゗ルの場所
Answer: A,D

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NO.1 組織は、 パスワ ードだけで達成できないデスクトップのためのより高いレベルのセキ
ュリテゖを要求します。 証明書は認証機関から獲得されました。 また、 スマート? カー ドは
ユーザのために購入されました。
デスクトップ管理者は、Active Directory （AD ） を準備するために、 どの 3 つのタスクを行な
わなければなりませんか。 （3 つ選んでください。 ）
A. 信頼されたルート証明機関グループにユーザー? プリンシパル名を追加する。
B. AD の中のエンタープラ゗ズ NTAuth スト ゕにルート証明書を追加する 。
C. AD の中の信頼されたルート階層にルート証明書を追加する。
D. ユーザーの AD ゕカ ウントにユーザー? プリンシパル名を追加する。
E. AD の中の信頼され たルート証明機関グループ? ポリシーにルート証明書を追加する。
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 View Transfer Server は、どれくらいのデゖスクを同時に転送することができますか。
A. 15
B. 60
C. 4
D. 30
Answer: B

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NO.3 View Composer Database は、どの三つの コンポーネントと接続に情報を格納しますか。
（3 つ選んでください。 ）

NO.4 VMFS データ? ス トゕを使用する場合に、View Composer によ って使用される vSphere
クラスタ中の ESXi ホストの最大数は何ですか。
A. 4
B. 8
C. 32
D. 16
Answer: B

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Explanation:
From http://myvirtualcloud.net/?p=3245 8 Hosts per Cluster when used with VMFS - did not change
This limit is hard-coded in View Composer; however it comes from a VMFS limitation on the number
of hosts that can simultaneously read from a single VMDK. This VMDK in a VMware View
environment with View Composer would be the Replica disk.

NO.5 どの 2 つのオペレーテゖング? システムが View Transfer Server の゗ンストールのために
サポートされますか。 (2 つ選んでください。)
A. Windows Server 2008 32-bit
B. Windows Server 2003 R2 SP2 32-bit
C. Windows Server 2003 SP2 64-bit
D. Windows Server 2008 R2 64-bit
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 組織は DomainA における View Connection Server を持っていま す。 DomainB のユーザ ー
はドメ゗ン A 内の既存の接続サーバのデスクトップにゕクセスする必要があります。
DomainB からのユーザ ーは DomainA のデス クトップにゕクセスすることができるために、
システム管理者は Active Directory で何をしなければなりませんか。
A. プロキシにセキュリテゖ? サーバを DomainB への接続に設定する。
B. View Manager のサー バの設定でマルチドメ゗ン認証ボックスをチェックする。
C. DomainB から DomainA まで一方向の信頼 関係をセット? ゕップする。
D. DomainA と DomainB の間で双方向の信頼関係をセット? ゕップする。
Answer: D

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NO.7 View Composer のどのセッテゖングが、 仮想デスクトップのプールのストレージ· フッ
トプリントを削減するために使用することができますか。
A. 持続性のないデゖスクに使い捨てのフゔ゗ルをリダ゗レクトする。
B. 持続性のないデゖ スクに一時フゔ゗ルをリダ゗レクトする。
C. 持続性のないデゖ スクにユーザーのプロフゔ゗ル? データをリダ゗レ クトする。
D. 使い捨てのデゖス クの上に Windows プ ロフゔ゗ルを格納する。
Answer: A

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NO.8 管理者は、以前 のリリースから View Connection Server 5.x にゕップグレードしていま
す。
どのコンポーネントは、ゕップグレードの時に自動的に゗ンストールから省略されますか。
A. VMware Message Bus Component
B. VMware Script Host
C. VMware PCoIP Secure Gateway
D. VMware VDMDS
Answer: D

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NO.9 どの TCP ポート は View Transfer Server のフゔ゗ゕウォールの上で開いていなければな
りませんか。
A. 443
B. 21
C. 389
D. 4172
Answer: A

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NO.10 管理者は、 View Security Server を Windows Server 2003 R2 シス テムに゗ンストールして
います。
リモートゕクセスを有効にするために、どの 3 つの Windows フ ゔ゗ゕウォールのポートは
゗ンストール前に予め設定されなければなりませんか。 （3 つ選択してください。 ）
A. 443
B. 3389
C. 4001
D. 4172
E. 8009
Answer: A,B,D

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Explanation:
Change from B/D to C/E b'c if you install a security server at least port 443 must be open from
untrusted to the security server and from the DMZ to internal ports 4001 and 8009 RDP (3389)
don't have to be opened, this is tunneled via 443

NO.11 どの 2 つのプラ ットフォームは VMware View 5 環境で VMware View Composer によ っ
てサポートされていますか。 （2 つ選択してください。 ）
A. Windows Server 2008 R2 で実行されている VMware vCenter 4.0 Update 3
B. Windows XP Pro 64-bit で実行されている VMware vCenter 4.1 Update 1
C. Windows Server 2003 64-bit で実行されてい る VMware vCenter 4.1 Update 1
D. Windows Server 2008 R2 で実行されている VMware vCenter 5.0
Answer: A,D

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3. 管理者は、初め て View Connection Server 5.x を゗ンストールする準備を しています。
どの 2 つのサーバー先行条件は Windows Server 2003 の上で適当な ゗ンストールのために必
要とされますか。(2 つ選んでください。)
A. コネクション? サーバーと使用するために SSL 証明書を構成する。
B. サーバーの静的な IP ゕドレスを構成する。
C. ゗ンストール用の ドメ゗ン管理者ゕカウントを構成する。
D. 適切なオープンポ ートを持つフゔ゗ゕウォールを構成する。
Answer: B,D

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Explanation:
Only on Win 2008 R2 the setup configures Firewall SSL certificate is not required, setup will install a
self signed

NO.12 どの 2 つのステ ップが View Composer の゗ンストール· プロセスの一部ですか。 （2 つ選
択してください。 ）
A. View Administrator で Enable View Composer のチェックボックスを選択する。
B. vCenter Server シス テムに View Composer を゗ンストールする。
C. Windows システムで View Composer サー ビスを登録する。
D. View Composer デー タベースへの ODBC 接 続を構成する。
Answer: B,D

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Explanation:
-Ab Version 5.1 nicht mehr zwingend auf dem vCenter
-braucht eine DB (Oracle oder SQL-Server) inkl. ODBC-DSN

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Code d'Examen: TB0-111
Nom d'Examen: Tibco (TIBCO Rendezvous 8 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 With TIBCO Rendezvous messaging, which networking protocol does the client application use to
connect to the Rendezvous daemon (RVD)?
A. SSL
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. HTTP
Answer: D

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NO.2 The following is the declaration of secure daemon in Rendezvous C API: tibrv_status
tibrvSecureDaemon_SetUserCertWithKey( const char* userCertWithKey, const char* password);
Which two statements are correct about this function? (Choose two.)
A. The password parameter is used to decrypt the private key.
B. The password parameter is used for the password for this user.
C. TheuserCertWithKey parameter is used to register user certificate with a private key. The text of this
certificate must be in PEM encoding.
D. TheuserCertWithKey parameter is used to register user certificate with a private key. The text of this
certificate may be in PEM or PK12 encoding.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Your back-end processing supports multi-threading and you plan to leverage this capability in the
context of a Rendezvous distributed queue (RVCMQ) subscriber by running five concurrent threads.
Which statement is correct?
A. RVCMQ scales by multiple program instances (horizontally), not by multi-threading (vertically).
B. Each distributed queue member receives as many messages as specified by the scheduler
configuration (the scheduler tasks parameter must be set to 5 or greater).
C. Each distributed queue member receives as many messages as specified by the worker tasks
parameter (the worker tasks parameter of each queue member must be equal to or greater than 5).
D. Each distributed queue member receives as many messages as it dispatches (nothing needs to be
done from a RVCMQ standpoint as it is a matter of the multi-threaded message dispatching).
Answer: C

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NO.4 For Rendezvous secure daemon (RVSD), subject access can be restricted to specific users. Where on
the RVSD browser interface is this feature configured?
A. on the User's page
B. on the Subject Access page
C. on the Limiting Access page
D. on the Authorize Subjects page
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement is correct about the _RV.INFO.RVCM.DELIVERY.CONFIRM.subject advisory?
A. A listener sends this advisory to confirm receipt of a certified message.
B. The sender presents this advisory after deleting the message from its ledger.
C. A sender presents this advisory whenever a registered listener confirms receipt of a certified message.
D. A sender presents this advisory when all registered listeners have either confirmed delivery of a
certified message, or canceled interest in receiving it.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement is correct about Rendezvous fault-tolerant groups (RVFTs)?
A. RVFT is an election protocol that tells an application when it is active or inactive.
B. RVFT can only be utilized for message producers, not for message consumers.
C. For reliable consumers bound to an RVFT transport, the RVFT transport automatically disables
subscriptions if the fault-tolerant group member becomes inactive.
D. For certified consumers bound to an RVFT transport, the RVFT transport automatically
confirms messages if the fault-tolerant group member becomes inactive.
E. For certified consumers bound to an RVFT transport, the RVFT transport automatically cancels the
certified agreement if the fault-tolerant group member becomes inactive.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two statements are correct about fault-tolerant groups? (Choose two.)
A. Members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member weight.
B. Fault-tolerant groups implement a K of N active strategy (K member of a group is active while N-K
members are passive).
C. Members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member weight, which must be
a unique value within the fault-tolerant group.
D. Members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member weight. Members with
equal weight are ranked by the time they joined the fault-tolerant group.
E. The members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member weight. Members
with equal weight are ranked by non-deterministic means opaque to programs.
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 Which three activities can be configured through the Rendezvous routing daemon (RVRD) HTTP
interface to be routinely output to the RVRD log file? (Choose three.)
A. Subject Data: to log all messages that this routing daemon forwards to its neighbors or receives from
its neighbors
B. Connections: to log connection activity whenever this routing daemon establishes or closes a
connection to a neighbor
C. Client: to log RVRD local client connection activity whenever a client application establishes or closes a
connection to the routing daemon
D. Subject interest: to log all subscription requests (notification of listening) that this routing daemon
sends to its neighbors or receives from its neighbors
E. Remote: to log RVRD remote client connection activity whenever a remote client application
establishes or closes a connection to the routing daemon
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.9 tibrvlistenis started with the following settings: -network ";224.2.2.2;224.6.6.6" "mytest" tibrvsend is
started with the following settings: -network ";224.6.6.6;224.2.2.2" "mytest". "message #1" What is the
expected result?
A. The listener receives "message #1" only when run on a different host than the sender.
B. The listener does not receive "message #1" when run on a different host than the sender.
C. The listener will receive the message only if both the listener and sender run on the same host.
D. The listener will receive the message only if both the listener and sender connect remotely to the same
daemon.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Company A will deploy their Rendezvous applications to their production environment. They need to
run five RVDs, two RVRDs, one RVA, and one RVTRACE utility on one particular host. How many ticket
files (tibrv.tkt) are needed on the host?
A. one
B. seven
C. eight
D. nine
E. four
Answer: A

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NO.11 Queue dispatch calls remove the event at the head of a queue, and run its callback function. What is
the correct behavior for the three types of dispatch calls in situations where the queue is empty? (Choose
three.)
A. Ordinary dispatch blocks indefinitely, until the queue contains an event.
B. Polling dispatch does not block. If the queue is empty, it returns immediately.
C. Timed dispatch does not block for an event, but keeps on polling periodically.
D. Ordinary dispatch blocks for the timeout value, until the queue contains an event.
E. Polling dispatch blocks waiting for an event. If the queue is empty, it returns immediately.
F. Timed dispatch blocks waiting for an event, but returns without dispatching anything if a waiting time
limit is exceeded.
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.12 Which advisory message does a Rendezvous fault-tolerant member present when other group
members use parameters that do not match its corresponding parameters?
A. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.PARAM_MISMATCH.group
B. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.PARAM_COLLISION.group
C. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.MEMBER_UNAVAILABLE.group
D. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.MEMBER_PARAM_MISMATCH.group
Answer: A

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NO.13 When programming a TIBCO Rendezvous fault-tolerant application, it is a documented best practice to
associate fault-tolerant member events with _____.
A. a low-priority queue
B. a high-priority queue
C. a system event queue
D. the default event queue
Answer: B

Tibco   TB0-111   TB0-111 examen   TB0-111   TB0-111 examen   TB0-111 examen

NO.14 A publisher application uses a transport with UDP port number 8600 and multicast group 239.1.1.1.
Which two sets of transport parameters enable a subscriber application to receive messages from the
publisher? (Choose two.)
A. Service 6800, Network ";239.1.1.0;239.1.1.1"
B. Service 8600, Network ";239.1.1.0;239.1.1.1"
C. Service 8600, Network ";239.1.1.1,239.1.1.0"
D. Service 8600, Network ";239.1.1.0,239.1.1.1;239.1.1.1"
Answer: C,D

Tibco examen   TB0-111 examen   certification TB0-111   certification TB0-111

NO.15 In TIBCO Rendezvous, a control channel is used for communication between _____.
A. Rendezvous daemons and client processes
B. Rendezvous daemons and browser interface
C. Rendezvous managed daemons and Rendezvous non-managed daemons
D. Rendezvous Daemon Manager (RVDM) and Rendezvous managed daemons
Answer: D

certification Tibco   TB0-111   TB0-111

NO.16 Where is the Rendezvous license ticket file located?
A. It can be in any directory in theclasspath.
B. It can be in any directory in the execution path.
C. It must be in the Rendezvous Home/lib directory.
D. It must be in the Rendezvous Home/bin directory.
Answer: A

Tibco   TB0-111   TB0-111 examen

NO.17 Which two situations can trigger the presentation of a SCHEDULER.OVERFLOW advisory? (Choose
two.)
A. Scheduler has set a task backlog limit.
B. Scheduler has not set a task backlog limit.
C. Scheduler is accepting new tasks, but discarding old ones on a FIFO basis.
D. The Scheduler backlog limit has been reached and new tasks are being discarded.
Answer: A,D

certification Tibco   TB0-111 examen   TB0-111   TB0-111

NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
Which menu option shown in the exhibit is used for setting the default service and network for
Rendezvous secure daemons (RVSDs)?
A. Users
B. Services
C. XML Configuration
D. Daemon Parameters
E. Networks and Services
Answer: D

Tibco examen   TB0-111   TB0-111   TB0-111

NO.19 You plan to test a network to ensure that it meets the following requirements: 100,000 point-topoint
messages to be published by a single source in batch mode with ten messages per batch with an interval
gap of 10 milliseconds. What is the correct rvperfm command to start a test run?
A. rvperfm -service 7501 -daemon 7500 -inbox -messages 100000 -interval 10 -batch 10
B. rvperfm -service 7500 -daemon 7500 -inbox -messages 100000 -interval 0.01 -batch 10
C. rvperfm -service 7500 -daemon 7500 -subject PTP -messages 100000 -interval 10 -batch 10
D. rvperfm -service 7501 -daemon 7500 -subject _INBOX -messages 100000 -interval 10 -batch
E. rvperfm -service 7501 -daemon 7500 -subject _PTP -messages 100000 -interval 0.01 -batch 10
Answer: B

Tibco   TB0-111   TB0-111 examen   TB0-111   TB0-111 examen

NO.20 Which two statement are correct about certified delivery confirmation? (Choose two.)
A. Explicit confirmation of message delivery by the listening program is the default behavior.
B. When confirmation reaches the certified sender, the transport presents a DELIVERY.CONFIRM
advisory.
C. Automatic confirmation of message delivery upon return from the callback function is the default
behavior.
D. When confirmation reaches the certified listener, the transport presents a
DELIVERY.CONFIRM advisory.
E. When confirmation reaches the certified sender, the transport presents a
DELIVERY.COMPLETE advisory.
Answer: B,C

Tibco   TB0-111   certification TB0-111   certification TB0-111   certification TB0-111   TB0-111 examen

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Code d'Examen: OG0-9AB
Nom d'Examen: The Open Group (TOGAF 8 - 9 Advanced Bridge)
Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following reasons best describes why the ADM numbering scheme for versioning output is
an example and not mandatory?
A. To enable use with the Architecture Content Framework
B. To permit adaptation as required
C. To show the evolution of deliverables
D. To support change management
Answer: B

The Open Group   certification OG0-9AB   certification OG0-9AB   OG0-9AB   OG0-9AB examen

NO.2 In TOGAF, what is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?
A. An artifact will contain one or more deliverables
B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them
C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect
D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project
E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not
Answer: E

The Open Group   OG0-9AB   OG0-9AB   certification OG0-9AB

NO.3 If a technique is referenced by processes categorized as TOGAF Core and TOGAF Mandated in the
Document Categorization Model, then in which category should it be placed?
A. TOGAF Extension
B. TOGAF Guidelines and Techniques
C. TOGAF Recommended
D. TOGAF Supporting
Answer: C

The Open Group   OG0-9AB   OG0-9AB

NO.4 Which one of the following describes the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?
A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference
Library, Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference
Library, Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
Answer: D

certification The Open Group   certification OG0-9AB   certification OG0-9AB

NO.5 According to TOGAF, which of the following are the architecture domains that are commonly accepted
subsets of an overall enterprise architecture?
A. Application, Business, Data, Technology
B. Capability, Segment, Strategic
C. Context, Definition, Governance, Transformation
D. Definition, Realization, Transition, Vision
Answer: A

The Open Group   certification OG0-9AB   OG0-9AB   certification OG0-9AB

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Code d'Examen: 250-311
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 for Windows)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 The Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager supports the use of which database solutions?
(Choose two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2000
B. MySQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
D. Oracle Database 11g
E. Oracle Database 9i
Answer: AC

certification Symantec   250-311 examen   250-311   certification 250-311   certification 250-311

NO.2 Lifeline Supply Company found during a recent audit that the current security solution for
theirdesktops and servers missed several rootkitswithin their environment. These rootkits have
compromised several company computers.
Which protection technology in Symantec Endpoint Protection could remediate these rootkits?
A. Host Integrity
B. Antivirus and Antispyware Protection
C. Network Threat Protection
D. Application and Device Control
Answer: B

Symantec   250-311   certification 250-311   250-311 examen

NO.3 Where can you edit a non-shared policy?
A. Clients
B. Monitors
C. Home
D. Admin
Answer: A

certification Symantec   250-311   certification 250-311   certification 250-311

NO.4 Which Network Threat Protection technologies of the SymantecEndpoint Protection client provide the
primary protection layers against network attacks?
A. ProactiveThreat Protection and Network Access Control
B. ProactiveThreat Protection and Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention and Client Firewall
D. Client Firewall and Network Access Control
Answer: C

Symantec   250-311   250-311 examen

NO.5 THE DISCLOSURE TO YOU OF THIS EXAMINATION ("THEEXAM") AND ANY
ACCOMPANYING EXAMINATION MATERIALS AND ANY DERIVATIVES THEREOF
(COLLECTIVELY REFERRED TO AS THE "EXAM MATERIALS") IS SUBJECT TO THE
TERMSAND CONDITIONS OF THE SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY
AGREEMENT PROVIDED HEREIN. BY CLICKING ON THE "START" BUTTON IN
RESPONSE TO THE ACCEPTANCE QUERY, OR BY OTHERWISE TAKING THE
EXAMINATION, YOU ARE CONSENTING TO BE BOUND BY THIS AGREEMENT. BY
CLICKING ON THE "EXIT" BUTTON, YOU CHOOSE NOT TO AGREE AND WILL BE LET OUT OF THE
EXAM.
IF THESE TERMSARE CONSIDERED AN OFFER, ACCEPTANCE IS EXPRESSLY
LIMITED TO THESE TERMS.
SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY AGREEMENT
This is an agreement ("Agreement") between You and Symantec Corporation that sets forth the terms and
conditions of your use and disclosure of the Exam Materials.
You hereby understand, acknowledge, and agree:
1.That Symantec Corporation spends substantial sums of time and money in developing and
administering its Exam Materials and labs and carefully guards their integrity and
confidentiality;
2.That the questions and answers of the Exam are the exclusiveand confidential property of Symantec
Corporation and are protected by Symantec Corporation's intellectual property rights;
3.That You may not disclose the Exam questions or answers or discuss any of the content of the Exam
Materials with any person, without prior written approval of Symantec Corporation;
4.Not toremovefromtheexamination roomany ExamMaterialsof any kind providedto Youor
any other material related to the Exam, including, without limitation, any notes or calculations;
5.Not to copy or attempt to make copies (written, photocopied, or otherwise) of any Exam
Material, including, without limitation, any exam questions or answers;
6.Not to sell, license, distribute, giveaway, or obtain from any other source other Symantec Corporation
the Exam materials, questions or Answers.
You hereby acknowledge and agree that violation of any of these provisions will cause
irreparable harm to Symantec Corporation for which monetary remedies may be inadequate, and that
Symantec Corporation shall be entitled, without waiving any other rights or remedies, to take all
appropriate actions to remedy or prevent such disclosure or misuse, including obtaining an immediate
injunction. Neither this Agreement nor any right granted hereunder shallbe assignable or otherwise
transferableby You. ThisAgreement maybe modifiedonlyby a writing signed by both parties. This
Agreement shall be construed in accordance with the laws of the State of California, without giving effect
to any choice of law rule. This Agreement represents the entire Agreement of the parties hereto pertaining
to the subject matter of this
Agreement, and supersedes any and all prior oral discussions and/or written correspondence or
agreements between the parties with respect thereto.
If you ACCEPT the termsand conditions of this Agreement, click 'Yes, I agree.', and begin this exam. If
you DO NOT ACCEPT this Agreement, you must click 'No, I do not agree.', and will not be able to proceed
with this exam.
Answer.pending

NO.6 What are the three configurable actions in TruScan ProactiveThreat Scan? (Choose three.)
A. log suspect process only
B. set a public SNMP trap
C. quarantine suspect process
D. terminate the suspect process
E. generate dump of system state
F. suspend the suspect process
Answer: ACD

certification Symantec   certification 250-311   250-311   250-311 examen   certification 250-311

NO.7 A company has a large sales force who travel with laptops. They want to block USB
access on the laptops when they are disconnected from the corporate network.
Which two things are required to achievethis? (Choose two.)
A. multiple sites
B. multiple locations
C. firewall policy
D. device control policy
E. host integrity policy
Answer: BD

certification Symantec   certification 250-311   250-311   250-311 examen   250-311   certification 250-311

NO.8 A computer is configured in Mixed Control mode. The administrator creates and applies a firewall policy
to the computer that has a rule that allows FTP trafficabove the blue line and another rule that blocks
LDAP traffic below the blue line. On the computer, local rules are created to allow LDAP trafficand block
FTP.
Which traffic flow behavior should be expected on the local computer?
A. Both FTP and LDAP trafficare allowed.
B. Both FTP and LDAP trafficare blocked.
C. FTP is blocked and LDAP is allowed.
D. FTP is allowed and LDAP is blocked.
Answer: A

certification Symantec   250-311 examen   certification 250-311   250-311 examen

NO.9 Which label is given to a program or algorithm that replicates itself overa computer
network and usually performs malicious actions?
A. virus
B. zero-day exploit
C. spam
D. worm
Answer: D

Symantec   250-311   250-311 examen   250-311

NO.10 THE DISCLOSURE TO YOU OF THIS EXAMINATION ("THE EXAM") AND ANY
ACCOMPANYING EXAMINATION MATERIALS AND ANY DERIVATIVES THEREOF
(COLLECTIVELY REFERRED TO AS THE "EXAM MATERIALS") IS SUBJECT TO THE
TERMSAND CONDITIONS OF THE SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY
AGREEMENT PROVIDED HEREIN. BY CLICKING ON THE "START" BUTTON IN
RESPONSE TO THE ACCEPTANCE QUERY, OR BY OTHERWISE TAKING THE
EXAMINATION, YOU ARE CONSENTING TO BE BOUND BY THIS AGREEMENT. BY
CLICKING ON THE "EXIT" BUTTON, YOU CHOOSE NOT TO AGREE AND WILL BE LET OUT OF THE
EXAM.
IF THESE TERMSARE CONSIDERED AN OFFER, ACCEPTANCE IS EXPRESSLY
LIMITED TO THESE TERMS.
SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY AGREEMENT
This is an agreement ("Agreement") between You and Symantec Corporation that sets forth the terms and
conditions of your use and disclosure of the Exam Materials.
You hereby understand, acknowledge, and agree:
1.That Symantec Corporation spends substantial sums of time and money in developing and
administering its Exam Materials and labs and carefully guards their integrity and
confidentiality;
2.That the questions and answers of the Exam are the exclusiveand confidential property of Symantec
Corporation and are protected by Symantec Corporation's intellectual property rights;
3.That You may not disclose the Exam questions or answers or discuss any of the content of the Exam
Materials with any person, without prior written approval of Symantec Corporation;
4.Not toremovefromtheexamination roomany ExamMaterialsof any kind providedto Youor
any other material related to the Exam, including, without limitation, any notes or calculations;
5.Not to copy or attempt to make copies (written, photocopied, or otherwise) of any Exam
Material, including, without limitation, any exam questions or answers;
6.Not to sell, license, distribute, giveaway, or obtain from any other source other Symantec
Corporation the Exam materials, questions or answers.
You hereby acknowledge and agree that violation of any of these provisions will cause
irreparable harm to Symantec Corporation for which monetary remedies may be inadequate, and that
Symantec Corporation shall be entitled, without waiving any other rights or remedies, to take all
appropriate actions to remedy or prevent such disclosure or misuse, including obtaining an immediate
injunction. Neither this Agreement nor any right granted hereunder shallbe assignable or otherwise
transferableby You. ThisAgreement maybe modifiedonlyby a writing signed by both parties. This
Agreement shall be construed in accordance with the laws of the State of California, without giving effect
to any choice of law rule. This Agreement represents the entire Agreement of the parties hereto pertaining
to the subject matter of this Agreement, and supersedes any and all prior oral discussions and/or written
correspondence or agreements between the parties with respect thereto. If you ACCEPT the termsand
conditions of this Agreement, click 'Yes, I agree.', and begin this exam. If you DO NOT ACCEPT this
Agreement, you must click 'No, I do not agree.', and will not be able to proceed with this exam.
Answer. pending

NO.11 An administrator believes that client computers are running different software versions of Symantec
Endpoint Protection.
Which report type shows which client computers are running different software versions?
A. Application and Device Control Report
B. System Report
C. Compliance Report
D. Computer Status Report
Answer: D

Symantec   250-311   certification 250-311   certification 250-311

NO.12 Which page is used to create login accounts to the Symantec Endpoint Protection
Manager console?
A. Policies
B. Home
C. Admin
D. Clients
Answer: A

Symantec   250-311   certification 250-311

NO.13 Which fivecomponents are incorporated in Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Choose five.)
A. antispam
B. application and device control
C. full disk encryption
D. host integrity
E. antivirus
F. antispyware
G. content filtering
H. intrusion prevention
I. client firewall
J. asset management
Answer: BEFHI

Symantec examen   250-311   certification 250-311   250-311 examen   250-311 examen

NO.14 Refer to the exhibit.
Inheritance is turned on for groups LLSCO, Group A, Laptops, and Group 2 (outlined).
Without turning inheritance off, which top level group must be modified to affect users in the Laptop
group?
A. Desktops
B. Laptops
C. Group 1
D. Group A
Answer: C

certification Symantec   certification 250-311   certification 250-311   250-311

NO.15 What controls access from one network segment to another?
A. hub
B. MTA
C. sensor
D. firewall
Answer: D

Symantec   250-311   250-311   250-311

NO.16 In the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console, where do you modifyreplication?
A. Admim > Servers > Server Properties > Directory Servers
B. Admin > Servers > Local Site > Replication Partner
C. Policies > Management Server Lists > Replication
D. Admin > Servers > Database > Tasks
Answer: B

Symantec   250-311   250-311   certification 250-311

NO.17 Which two statements are true about Symantec Endpoint Protection TruScan Proactive Threat Scan?
(Choose two.)
A. It inspects encrypted network traffic.
B. It evaluates process behavior.
C. It uses malicious code detection signatures.
D. It blocks attackers' IP addresses.
E.It detects unknown threats.
Answer: BE

Symantec   250-311 examen   250-311

NO.18 Lifeline Supply Company wants to reduce or eliminatethe HelpDesk callsthey receivedue to end users
modifying, moving, or deleting configuration files.
Which component of Symantec Endpoint Protection will allow the IT administrator to prevent users from
altering configuration files?
A. TruScan ProactiveThreat Scan
B. Device Control
C. Application Control
D. Host Integrity
Answer: C

certification Symantec   certification 250-311   certification 250-311   250-311

NO.19 The administrators at Lifeline Supply Company have a manufacturing facility that runs
three shifts. Employees at the facility must share computers. The administrators want the
ability to apply different policies/configurations for each shift.
How can the administrator configure the environment to allow policies to be applied to each shift?
(Choose two.)
A. create one group for all computers in the facility
B. create one group for all users in the facility
C. create one group for all computers on each shift
D. create one group for all users on each shift
E. switch the clients to computer mode
F. switch the clients to user mode
Answer: DF

Symantec   250-311   250-311

NO.20 What is one reason for disabling learned applications?
A. Learned applications can often expose usernames and passwords.
B. Learned applications require promiscuous mode.
C. Learned applications are often legitimate programs.
D. Learned applications are illegal in some countries.
Answer: D

Symantec   250-311 examen   250-311

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