2013年6月28日星期五

Symantec meilleur examen ASC-012, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: ASC-012

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (ASC High Availablity Assessment)

Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 In a 2-node 5.1 Replicated Data Cluster using VVR, which option should be discussed with the
customer?
A. setting the AutoFailover service group attribute to 2
B. using SystemZones for the service groups
C. setting the ClusterFailOverPolicy service group attribute to Manual
D. using Hybrid service groups for the replication service group
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two should be captured in the Symantec Design Report Questionnaire for a VCS or SF/HA
Implementation Service? (Select two.)
A.Prerequisites for implementing VCS
B.Details of the physical environment, including details of the servers, O/S networks and storage that will
be deployed in the solution
C.List of VCS agents that will be deployed in the solution, including requirements for custom agents
where applicable
D.List of the service groups, resources and dependencies that are to be configured in the solution
E.Details of the applications to be clustered, including service level objectives
Answer: Pending

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NO.3 What are the recommended project phases for VCS or SF/HA Implementation Services, in the right
order?
A. Assess, Design, Transform, Operate (ADTO)
B. Design, Installation, Configuration, Testing, Project Close
C. Planning and Design, Installation and Configuration, Testing, Project handover and close
D. Project Initiation and Planning, Design, Implementation and Testing, Operations Handover, Project
Close
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following tools should you primarily use to perform pre-installation checks for implementing
VCS or SF/HA 5.1?
A. Common Product Installer (CPI)
B. SORT Installation and Upgrade Assessment
C. VRTS Explorer
D. VCS Configuration Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer has a large high-availability environment comprising of 90 Veritas Cluster Server (VCS)
clusters across 3 sites. Thier business continuity group requires a monthly set of reports showing the
availability and downtime for each service that is clustered. What solution should you recommend?
A. Storage Foundation Manager
B. Veritas Operations Manager
C. Global Cluster Manager
D. VCS webGUI
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: ST0-119

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Altiris (TM) Client Management Suite 7.1 Technical Assessmen)

Questions et réponses: 101 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 solution denies the usage of applications on the network?
A. Software Management Solution
B. Application Metering Solution
C. Application Management Solution
D. Inventory Solution
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which type of component is included in the Software Catalog?
A. licenses
B. hotfixes
C. updates
D. uninstalls
Answer: A

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NO.3 A company is planning an In-Place Migration to Windows 7. They use PC Transplant to migrate the
personality. Which option will help reduce the network traffic when restoring the image.?
A. use File Preservation
B. use a higher compression
C. use unicast
D. deploy the OS without applications
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are two Software Update Plug-in responsibilities? (Select two.)
A. gathers an inventory on all installed software and their associated service pack level
B. sends execution results of all software installed to the Notification Server
C .gathers specific inventory on supported operating systems, applications, and the associated service
pack level
D. sends execution results of applied software bulletins to the Notification Server
E. notifies users before a Managed Delivery policy executes
Answer: CD

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NO.5 A system administrator needs to quickly deploy Windows 7 to several new computers without
preconfigured operating systems. The administrator decides to use an existing Ghost image since the
necessary drivers have already been added to the DeployAnywhere database. The PXE Configuration is
set to respond only to known computers. How should the administrator proceed?
A. Use Ghost Solution Suite to distribute the image as the computers boot to the network.
B. Import the list of new computers into the Management Console and assign an imaging task.
C. Deploy an Automation Folder to the new computers to prepare them for imaging.
D. Configure PXE to respond to a known list of MAC addresses and deploy the images only to the new
systems.
Answer: B

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NO.6 The Software Update Policy Wizard is used to create the Patch Management policy, which is
distributed to manage computers. How can a system administrator disable unsupported operating
systems?
A. For the selected operating systems, delete the software bulletin that has been selected for installation.
B. For the selected operating systems, deselect the software bulletin that has been selected for
installation.
C. For the selected operating systems, disable the software policy.
D. For the selected operating systems, remove the software policy.
Answer: B

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NO.7 In which area of the Symantec Management Console can a system administrator specify which users
have access to WMI, AMT, DASH, and other management technologies?
A. Credentials Management
B. Credential Access Manager
C. Security Role Manager
D. Out-of-Band Management
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 solution tracks the installations of an application and how
often the application is used?
A. Application Management Solution
B. Deployment Solution
C. Application Metering Solution
D. Inventory Solution
Answer: D

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NO.9 An inventory policy is set to run weekly at 18:00 on Wednesdays and is present on all computers.
However, a user shuts down a laptop right after the inventory starts at 18:00 and turns it on the next
morning at 08:00. When will the inventory run?
A. Thursday morning at 08:00
B. next Wednesday evening at 18:00
C. Thursday evening at 18:00
D. never
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which statement is true about the Application Metering feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on the network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to purchased licenses.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which configuration step should be completed before a computer image can be sent to a managed
computer without an existing operating system installed on its hard drive?
A. create preboot configurations
B. install an operating system on the hard drive and install the applicable agents
C. configure predefined computers
D. configure initial deployment
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which solution is included with Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1?
A. Help Desk Solution
B. Discovery Solution
C. pcAnywhere
D. Symantec System Recovery
Answer: D

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NO.13 When reviewing compliance reports for the Microsoft products, the system administrator notices that
the data and bulletins have remained unchanged for two weeks. What should the administrator check to
address this issue?
A. Revise Software Update task
B. Import Patch Data for Microsoft policy
C. Patch Management Import task
D. Microsoft Compliance Update policy
Answer: B

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NO.14 What must be done after a managed computer has been patched?
A. Check the Software Update Package Integrity task.
B. Run a Software Inventory task.
C. Run a Microsoft Vulnerability Analysis task.
D. Update the Agent Configuration policy.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two operating systems can be managed using pcAnywhere? (Select two.)
A. Linux
B. iOS
C. Android
D. Mac E.Unix
Answer: AD

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Code d'Examen: ST0-147

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas Cluster Server 6.0 for Unix Technical Assessment )

Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

ST0-147 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/ST0-147.html


NO.1 An additional email address was added to the Veritas Cluster Server notifier resource without any other
actions being taken. All but one user is receiving notifications. How can this problem be solved?
A. refresh the mailbox of the impacted user
B. restart the notifier resource
C. restart the SNMP daemon
D. restart the HAD daemon
Answer: B

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NO.2 While Veritas Cluster Server supports nodes in a cluster using different hardware or operating system
versions, this is potentially undesirable for which two reasons? (Select two.)
A. user security
B. inability to handle load on failover
C. cluster upgrades
D. operational complexity
E. network connectivity
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 The administrator of a four-node Veritas cluster has configured notifications as highly available for all
notification methods. How many notification manager resources are running when all nodes are
considered?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have removed a system from a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster so that the cluster now only
has seven nodes. You need to ensure the cluster will start successfully after a complete cluster shutdown.
Which line should be in the /etc/gabtab file to successfully start the cluster?
A. gabconfig -c -n 7
B. clust start seed=7
C. gabconfig start seed=7
D. clust -c -n 7
Answer: A

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NO.5 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has configured preferred fencing. Cluster communication breaks and separates sym1
from the other cluster nodes. Which node(s) will survive the fencing race?
A. sym1 only
B. sym2 only
C. sym3 only
D. both sym2 and sym3
Answer: D

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NO.6 One of the three coordinator disks needs to be repurposed as a data disk. What can the administrator
do to accommodate growth in the data center and still provide SCSI-3 I/O fencing?
A. use gatekeeper LUNs to provide additional coordinator disks
B. replace all coordinator disks with Coordination Point servers
C. remove a coordinator disk from the cluster and replace it with a Coordination Point server
D. use compressed disks to double the space available for coordinator disks to enable future growth
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two triggers can only be enabled at the resource level? (Select two.)
A. Resrestart
B. Resadminwait
C. Resfault
D. Resstatechange
E. resnotoff
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 Which two actions must be taken to upgrade an application under Veritas Cluster Server control?
(Select two.)
A. verify that the application agent supports the new version
B. verify that the new version is supported with haagent verify
C. freeze the application service group
D. freeze the application resources
E. stop the application agent on all systems
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 When architecting Coordination Point (CP) server into a Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) environment,
what should be done to ensure the CP service remains online?
A. configure multiple CP server instances on the same node
B. configure CP server as a resource in a VCS cluster
C. ensure that the CP server is backed up regularly
D. ensure that the CP server is on a reliable network
Answer: B

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NO.10 In a four-node cluster configuration, main.cf is modified to remove one of the four nodes. That node is
decommissioned, and the remaining cluster configuration is unchanged. A power failure causes all three
remaining nodes to shut down. What happens when all three nodes are powered on.?
A. The three nodes form a cluster.
B. Veritas Cluster Server will need manual intervention to come online.
C. LLT will fail because the fourth node is in the llthosts.
D. Veritas Cluster Server will go into ADMIN_WAIT.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which type of resources are considered by Veritas Cluster Server when determining whether a service
group is online?
A. OnOnly
B. OnOff
C. Persistent
D. None
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which two resource attributes need to be correctly set to prevent an unplanned outage due to an
improper configuration that might cause a fault during the online process of the new resource? (Select
two.)
A. AutoStart
B. Critical
C. Enabled
D. AutoDisabled
E. MonitorOnly
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 What is the first step when upgrading the operating system on a single node in a running multi-node
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) cluster?
A. offline service groups on the node
B. freeze the service groups
C. migrate parallel service groups
D. shut down VCS on all nodes
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which two actions can be taken to determine whether an application clustered with Veritas Cluster
Server (VCS) has been successfully started or stopped? (Select two.)
A. examine the online log file
B. examine the engine log file
C. view the Security Log from the VCS Java GUI
D. view the Log Desk from the VCS Java GUI
E. view the Application_A.log file
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 An administrator is manually adding a node named sym3 to an existing two-node cluster. What must
be done after installing Veritas Cluster Server and configuring cluster communications on the new node?
A. run hastart -add sym3 on any node
B. run hasys -force sym3 on the new node
C. run haclus -addnode sym3 on the new node
D. run hastart on the new node
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 310-090

Nom d'Examen: SUN (Sun Certified Business Component Developer for J2EE 1.3)

Questions et réponses: 409 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two are valid types for persistent fields in a CMP 2.0 entity bean? (Choose two.)
A. Java primitives
B. entity bean local interfaces
C. classes implementing java.io.Serializable
D. either java.util.Collection or java.util.Set
Answer: A C

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NO.2 Which statement about EJB QL is true?
A. An EJB QL query must contain the ORDER BY clause.
B. An EJB QL query is statically defined in the ejb-jar.xml deployment descriptor.
C. Duplicate values are always removed from EJB QL query results by the container.
D. It is legal to use an input parameter in the FROM clause or the SELECT clause of an EJB QL query.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which feature is mandatory for an EJB 2.0 compliant container?
A. JMX support
B. JVM co-resident JSPs
C. deferred database writes
D. lazy loading of entity bean data
E. client principal caller propagation
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which statement is true about a session bean's lifecycle?
A. Session beans cannot receive re-entrant loopback calls.
B. A stateless session bean's home interface can have overloaded create methods.
C. Stateless session beans can implement javax.ejb.SessionSynchronization.
D. The EJB 2.0 container can make concurrent calls to any stateful session bean instance.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
All beans involved use container-managed transactions and all methods are marked as Required. At
runtime, methodB is unable to communicate with its resource and calls the setRollbackOnly method.
What is the result?
A. JMS message redelivery semantics will apply.
B. The rollback will propagate to the sender of the message.
C. The bean's onMessage method will reattempt the sequence.
D. Transactions started by the onMessage method will always commit.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Label the methods according to whether the container ensures that the identity of the associated
entity object is available or unavailable to the instance during the method.
Answer:

NO.7 What is true about using java.net.Socket and java.net.ServerSocket within session bean business
methods?
A. Both classes can be used.
B. Neither class can be used.
C. Of the two classes, only java.net.Socket can be used.
D. Of the two classes, only java.net.ServerSocket can be used.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two statements about a client's reference to a session bean's remote home interface are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The reference can be passed as a method argument.
B. The reference provides the client with the IP address of the bean instance.
C. The reference provides the client with access to at least one create method.
D. A new home reference must be obtained for each new reference to a remote component interface.
Answer: A C

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NO.9 Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The EJB container must not allow the same enterprise bean to be deployed multiple times.
B. The EJB container must allow IIOP invocations on remote component and home interfaces.
C. The EJB container is not required to support publishing home references in a CORBA CosNaming
service.
D. The EJB container must implement the resource manager connection factory classes for resource
managers configured with the container.
E. The EJB container must allow enterprise beans deployed in the same enterprise archive to access one
another directly without having to go through home or remote interfaces.
Answer: B D

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NO.10 Which two APIs are provided to the Bean Provider by an EJB 2.0 container? (Choose two.)
A. JTA
B. JMX
C. JSP
D. JDO
E. JAXP
Answer: A E

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NO.11 Which accurately describes a characteristic of EJB 2.0?
A. EJB 2.0 is an example of a web-based component model.
B. EJB 2.0 components must be directly accessible via HTTP.
C. EJB 2.0 is an example of a component model for GUI applications.
D. EJB 2.0 applications can link to legacy systems using a J2EE connector.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which two actions could adversely affect the portability of an EJB 2.0 bean? (Choose two.)
A. changing a thread's priority
B. directly reading or writing a file descriptor
C. using java.net.Socket to be a network client
D. demarcating a transaction in a stateless session bean
E. using bean-managed transactions in a message-driven bean
Answer: A B

SUN   310-090   certification 310-090   certification 310-090

NO.13 Which exception can be thrown by the findByPrimaryKey method of a remotely called entity bean using
container-managed persistence?
A. javax.ejb.EJBException
B. javax.ejb.DuplicateKeyException
C. javax.ejb.NoSuchEntityException
D. javax.ejb.ObjectNotFoundException
Answer: D

SUN   310-090   310-090 examen   310-090 examen

NO.14 Who must ensure that a bean's environment entries are set to meaningful values?
A. Deployer
B. Bean Provider
C. EJB Server Provider
D. System Administrator
E. Application Assembler
F. EJB Container Provider
Answer: A

SUN   certification 310-090   310-090   310-090 examen   310-090 examen   310-090

NO.15 Which two are required to properly implement a CMP entity bean class? (Choose two.)
A. Declare variables for all persistent fields.
B. Provide constructors to initialize the CMP fields.
C. Do not implement the ejbFind<METHOD> methods.
D. Provide implementation code for get and set methods to store and retrieve the persistent fields.
E. Implement ejbCreate<METHOD> methods for all home interface create<METHOD> methods.
Answer: C E

SUN   310-090   certification 310-090   310-090

NO.16 Which transaction attribute may cause a javax.transaction.TransactionRequiredException to be
thrown?
A. Required
B. Supports
C. Mandatory
D. RequiresNew
Answer: C

SUN   310-090   310-090   310-090 examen

NO.17 What are two programming restrictions in the EJB 2.0 specification? (Choose two.)
A. An enterprise bean must not declare static fields as final .
B. An enterprise bean must not attempt to load a native library.
C. An enterprise bean must not attempt to create a new security manager.
D. An enterprise bean must not propagate a RuntimeException to the container.
E. An enterprise bean must not attempt to obtain a javax.naming.InitialContext .
Answer: B C

certification SUN   310-090 examen   certification 310-090   310-090

NO.18 Which two must be in an ejb-jar file, either by inclusion or reference? (Choose two.)
A. an enterprise archive (.ear) file
B. a deployment descriptor in the format defined by the EJB 2.0 specification
C. the class files for the classes that implement the home and remote interfaces
D. the class files for the interfaces and superinterfaces used by the bean, except J2SE or J2EE interfaces
E. the class files for the stub classes of the EJBHome andEJBObject interfaces, if remote interfaces are
deployed for the bean
Answer: B D

SUN   310-090 examen   310-090 examen   certification 310-090

NO.19 What two statements are true about EJB 2.0 container crashes? (Choose two.)
A. Entities will survive.
B. An entity bean's primary key will survive.
C. Message-driven bean instances will survive.
D. Stateful session bean instances will survive.
E. Crashes are guaranteed to be transparent to clients using entity beans.
Answer: A B

SUN examen   310-090   310-090

NO.20 Given:
Which EJB role is responsible for supplying this information?
A. Deployer
B. Bean Provider
C. Container Provider
D. System Administrator
E. Application Assembler
Answer: E

certification SUN   310-090   310-090 examen   certification 310-090   310-090

NO.21 Which is a Bean Provider's security-related responsibility?
A. assigns principals to roles in the application server
B. declares the role-link element in the deployment descriptor
C. declares the security-role element in the deployment descriptor
D. declares the security-role-ref element in the deployment descriptor
Answer: D

SUN examen   certification 310-090   310-090 examen   310-090

NO.22 Which method can be found in BOTH the EJBHome and EJBLocalHome interface?
A. getHomeHandle()
B. getEJBMetaData()
C. remove(Handle handle)
D. remove(Object primaryKey)
Answer: D

SUN   certification 310-090   certification 310-090   certification 310-090   310-090

NO.23 Which two must a Bean Provider avoid in an enterprise bean to ensure that the bean is portable to
any compliant EJB 2.0 container? (Choose two.)
(Assume that all reference variables have been correctly and legally initialized.)
A. java.sql.Connection c = aDataSource.getConnection();
B. java.security.Principal p = context.getCallerPrincipal();
C. QueueSession q = aQueueConnection.createQueueSession(true, 0);
D. Object o = new Object();
Object o2 = o.getClass().getClassLoader();
E. java.io.FileInputStream fs = new java.io.FileInputStream("MyFile");
Answer: D E

SUN examen   certification 310-090   310-090   310-090 examen   310-090 examen   310-090

NO.24 Which is a capability guaranteed by all EJB 2.0 containers?
A. JTA support
B. server failover
C. load balancing
D. servlet support
E. server clustering
Answer: A

SUN   certification 310-090   310-090   certification 310-090

NO.25 Which two must a Bean Provider supply for each enterprise bean in the deployment descriptor?
(Choose two.)
A. security roles
B. the JNDI name of the enterprise bean
C. the enterprise bean type: session, entity, or message-driven
D. the value of the transaction attributes for the home and component interface methods
E. the fully-qualified name of the class that implements the enterprise bean's business methods
Answer: C E

SUN   310-090 examen   310-090 examen   310-090 examen

NO.26 Given:
Which two elements must be included in the <resource-ref> tag? (Choose two.)
A. <res-type>
B. <res-ref-name>
C. <resource-env-ref>
D. <environment-resource>
Answer: A B

SUN   certification 310-090   certification 310-090   310-090

NO.27 Which two are guaranteed to a Bean Provider using an EJB 2.0 container? (Choose two.)
A. access to the JCE API
B. access to JavaMail API
C. access to the JXTA API
D. access to the JAXP API
Answer: B D

SUN   310-090   310-090

NO.28 Place the expertise on its associated EJB role.
Answer:

NO.29 Which method from javax.ejb.EJBContext returns an object that allows a Bean Provider to demarcate
transactions?
A. begin()
B. getAutoCommit()
C. getTransaction()
D. beginTransaction()
E. getUserTransaction()
Answer: E

SUN   310-090   certification 310-090   certification 310-090

NO.30 Which is a feature of EJB 2.0?
A. It provides synchronous message handling through message driven beans.
B. It provides support for both local and remote client views for session beans.
C. It provides support for both local and remote client views for message driven beans.
D. It guarantees that all services represented by an object will have conversational state.
Answer: B

SUN examen   certification 310-090   310-090   310-090

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Code d'Examen: 510-025

Nom d'Examen: Sybase (Adaptive Server Enterprise 15.0 Administrator Associate Exam)

Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Cursors can now be declared as which of the following? (Choose 4)
A. scrollable
B. forward_only
C. backward_only
D. non-scrollable
E. insensitive
F. semi-sensitive
Answer: adef

Sybase   510-025   510-025 examen   510-025

NO.2 Which commands can be used to specify the number of histogram steps in systatistics? (Choose 2)
A.create index
B.optdiag
C.update statistics
D.reorg
E.sp_modifystats
Answer: ac

certification Sybase   certification 510-025   510-025 examen   certification 510-025   510-025   510-025

NO.3 Given that the following commands are successfully executed:
use mydb
go
select * into #myusers from sysusers
go
In which database does #myusers exist?
A.master
B.model
C.mydb
D.tempdbX
Answer: d

Sybase examen   certification 510-025   certification 510-025   510-025

NO.4 Given that the following set of commands are executed in a 2k server:
sp_cacheconfig mycache, 100M,
go
sp_poolconfig mycache, 50M, 4K
go
sp_poolconfig mycache, 10M, 16K, 4K
go
Which of the following are TRUE? (Choose 2)
A. mycache is 40M
B.4K buffer pool is 50M
C.4k buffer pool is 40M
D.2K buffer pool is 50M
E.no 2K buffer pool
Answer: cd

Sybase   certification 510-025   certification 510-025   510-025   510-025 examen

NO.5 If a transaction places an update lock on a data page, what type of lock will a second transaction get if
it attempts to read the data using a SELECT statement?
A.Another UPDATE lock
B.SHARED lock
C.EXCLUSIVE lock
D.No lock is placed as process will be blocked
Answer: b

Sybase examen   510-025   510-025

NO.6 During the installation, which of the following databases are created on the master device? (Choose 2)
A.dbccdb
B.model
C.sybsecurity
D.sybsystemprocs
E.tempdb
Answer: be

certification Sybase   510-025   certification 510-025

NO.7 Which of the following are true about using the load database command?(Choose 3)
A.the database must be at least as large as the size of the database dump
B.the database must have been created with the for load option
C.the database must be exactly the same size as the database dump
D.the database must not be in use
E.the database need not exist because load database will create the database
F.the database must not be marked as suspect
Answer: adf

Sybase   510-025   510-025   certification 510-025   certification 510-025

NO.8 Which alter table clause will change an APL table to allow row level locking?
A.lock datarows
B.lock datapages
C.lock allpages
D.with fillfactor = 1
Answer: a

Sybase   510-025   510-025 examen   510-025   510-025

NO.9 Which of the following databases is used to store Job Scheduler information?
A.sybmigratedb
B.sybmgmtdb
C.sybsecurity
D.sybsystemdb
Answer: b

Sybase   510-025 examen   510-025   510-025

NO.10 Which of the following databases are required for an Adaptive Server installation? (Choose 2)
A.sybsyntax
B.sybsystemdb
C.sybmgmtdb
D.sybsecurity
E.sybsytemprocs
F.dbccdb
Answer: be

Sybase   510-025 examen   510-025

NO.11 Which of the following statements are true regarding procedure cache size? (Choose 3)
A.Procedure cache size is specified as percentage of the available memory.
B.Procedure cache size is specified as absolute value of the available memory.
C.Procedure cache size is a static parameter.
D.Procedure cache size is a dynamic parameter.
E.Procedure cache size is specified in units of logical pages (2, 4, 8, or 16K).
F.Procedure cache size is specified in units of 2k pages.X
Answer: bdf

Sybase   510-025   510-025 examen   certification 510-025

NO.12 Which of the following system databases will be built during an ASE installation? (Choose 4)
A.master
B.model
C.sybsyntax
D.sybsecurity
E.sybsystemdb
F.sybsystemprocs
Answer: abef

Sybase   510-025   510-025   510-025   510-025   510-025 examen

NO.13 Which system database is used to store distributed transaction management data?
A.sybsystemprocs
B.model
C.sybsystemdb
D.sybsecurity
Answer: c

Sybase examen   510-025   510-025   510-025

NO.14 What are the partition strategies that allow you to add partitions using alter table? (Choose 2)
A.hash
B.list
C.range
D.round robin
Answer: bc

Sybase   510-025   certification 510-025   510-025 examen

NO.15 To allow dirty reads, which of the following should be executed?
A.SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL 3
B.SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL 0
C.HOLDLOCK
D.NOHOLDLOCK
Answer: b

certification Sybase   certification 510-025   certification 510-025   certification 510-025   510-025

NO.16 Which system database controls the behavior of distributed transactions?
A.master
B.sybsecurity
C.sybsystemdb
D.sybsystemprocs
E.tempdb
Answer: c

Sybase   510-025   510-025

NO.17 Which command can be used with "static options" to list all the static server configuration options?
A.sp_configure
B.sp_helpconfig
C.sp_monitorconfig
D.sp_poolconfig
E.sp_dboption
Answer: b

Sybase   510-025 examen   510-025   510-025

NO.18 To determine if a configuration parameter is static or dynamic run ___________ specifying the
parameter name. (Choose 2)
A.sp_help
B.sp_configure
C.sp_helpconfig
D.sp_monitorconfig
E.sp_monitorX
Answer: bc

Sybase   510-025 examen   510-025   certification 510-025   510-025

NO.19 Which of the following utility programs are capable of reverse engineering table definitions? (Choose
2)
A.bcp
B.ddlgen
C.optdiag
D.srvbuild
E.Sybase Central
Answer: be

Sybase examen   certification 510-025   certification 510-025   510-025 examen

NO.20 When sizing additional network memory, how many packets does each connection require?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
Answer: b

Sybase examen   510-025   510-025

Le test de Certification Sybase 510-025 devient de plus en plus chaud dans l'Industrie IT. En fait, ce test demande beaucoup de travaux pour passer. Généralement, les gens doivent travailler très dur pour réussir.


SUN meilleur examen 310-400, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 310-400

Nom d'Examen: SUN (Sun Certified Integrator for Identity Manager 7.1)

Questions et réponses: 56 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is NOT true?
A. Attestations allow managers to sign off on an employees entitlements as appropriate to the
employees job function and responsibilities.
B. Mitigations allow a manager or other responsible individual to acknowledge and sustain a
control violation with appropriate cause or
conditions.
C. Remediations allow a manager or other responsible individual to correct a control violation
immediately, which is reflected in the entitlement
record that is saved for audit reporting.
D. Policy scans must be launched in auditor to catch control violations resulting from provisioning
through the Identity Manager side.
E. Entitlements are snapshots of access rights generated at the time of an access scan to record
attestation reviews for reporting and forensics;
however, they can be updated using rescans to reflect the absolute latest entitlements.
Answer: D

SUN   310-400   310-400   310-400   310-400   310-400 examen

NO.2 Identity Manager uses Confirmation and Correlation rules while performing synchronization
tasks.
Which of these rules provides faster processing and why?
A. The Confirmation Rule is faster because it uses only a single AttributeCondition clause in the
rule syntax.
B. The Correlation Rule is faster because it uses only a single AttributeCondition clause in the rule
syntax.
C. The Correlation Rule is faster because it uses only data contained in the repository.
D. The Confirmation Rule is faster because it uses only data contained in the repository.
Answer: C

SUN examen   310-400   310-400   310-400 examen   310-400   310-400

NO.3 Which three SPML 1.0 ExtendedRequests has the SPML 2.0 implementation standardized?
(Choose three.)
A. disableUser
B. launchProcess
C. resetUserPassword
D. changeUserPassword
E. listResourceObjects
F. runForm
Answer: A,C,D

certification SUN   certification 310-400   310-400   310-400

NO.4 A company has 30,000 employees with identities spread across multiple resources on
heterogeneous platforms. The company has issues with publishing corporate data to its web site
in a timely and secure fashion. The IT department is inundated with requests for password resets.
The corporation has security concerns about unknown active accounts and wants fine-grained
control over corporate resources. Company auditors require quarterly reports of employee
resource entitlements, certified by their managers. In addition, the company wants to streamline its
product channel with a partner corporation by sharing corporate resources. Which two business
drivers support deploying Identity Manager? (Choose two.)
A. The company wants to enhance IT security by intercepting access requests to authorize users
for applications.
B. The company wants to reduce IT costs by implementing self-service password reset.
C. The company wants to enhance IT security by detecting and preventing network intrusion.
D. The company wants to reduce IT costs by implementing single sign-on (SSO).
E. The company wants to enhance IT security by automating the deprovisioning of accounts.
F. The company wants to enhance IT security by maintaining digital signatures.
Answer: B,E

certification SUN   310-400   certification 310-400   310-400

NO.5 Which major deliverable will require the identification of an authoritative source for user
identity?
A. user self service
B. password management
C. identity synchronization
D. delegated administration
E. password management and delegated administration
Answer: C

SUN   310-400 examen   310-400 examen

NO.6 Which two features are provided by Identity Manager to improve audit compliance? (Choose
two.)
A. Audit controls are enforced upon provisioning.
B. Resource groups encapsulate fine-grained entitlements that can be assigned to a user by a
manager, ensuring fine-grained, separation of
duties.
C. Roles allow managers to assign entitlements while ensuring separation of duties.
D. Identity Manager stores and encrypts all personal data, such as government-issued IDs.
E. Identity Manager supports reading of resource logs for forensic analysis and reporting.
Answer: A,C

SUN   310-400   310-400

NO.7 Which two business factors support the configuration of Identity Manager SPE? (Choose two.)
A. The solution must support provisioning of up to 100,000 employee identities across disparate
systems.
B. The solution must support a self-service account feature for 1,000,000+ customer identities.
C. The solution must support complex approval processes for all provisioning requests.
D. The solution must utilize a corporate LDAP resource as its user repository.
E. The solution must maintain a single repository for all identities, request state, configuration, and
audit data.
Answer: B,D

SUN examen   310-400   310-400   310-400 examen   310-400

NO.8 What are three of the essential features of the XPRESS language? (Choose three.)
A. uses Postfix notation
B. uses Prefix notation
C. is structured using XML syntax
D. is compiled
E. describes an SPML syntax
F. has notion of libraries
Answer: B,C,F

SUN   310-400   310-400   310-400 examen   310-400 examen

NO.9 When a work item is generated by an executing task, the top-level variable userview is copied
into
the WorkItem data model. Which variable name is used to reference the userview?
A. userview
B. task.userview
C. variable.userview
D. variables.userview
E. context.userview
F. baseContext.userview
G. display.userview
Answer: D

SUN   certification 310-400   310-400   certification 310-400

NO.10 A company has a policy of using the first initial from a users name concatenated with the
users
last name plus a counter to generate unique user names. For example, a user named John Doe
would be assigned jdoe as a user name. The second John Doe hired would be assigned jdoe2
and so on. Why might this approach be problematic?
A. Multiple users can be assigned the same user name.
B. Identity Manager cannot programmatically concatenate names.
C. Identity Manager cannot specify user names; these come from authoritative sources.
D. Name changes make historical reporting and auditing difficult.
E. Identity Manager has no way of knowing or generating the next available counter.
Answer: D

SUN   310-400   310-400

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L'avènement de la certification SCO pratique d'examen 090-161 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 090-161

Nom d'Examen: SCO (SCO OPENSERVER(TM) RELS 5 ADMIN AE FR MASTER ACE V30A1 TEST)

Questions et réponses: 82 Q&As

090-161 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/090-161.html


NO.1 Your system does not boot near the end of the installation procedure, and you see the error
message:
PANIC: init
What is the most likely problem?
A. The installation program was unable to locate your primary floppy disk drive.
B. The VGA controller card is improperly configured.
C. The root filesystem did not properly mount.
D. The boot block was written on a bad track.
Answer: D

SCO   090-161 examen   090-161 examen   certification 090-161

NO.2 What information is NOT required for the cbackup(ADM) command to perform a backup?
A. Backup device
B. Backup level
C. Backup time
D. Filesystem
Answer: C

SCO examen   certification 090-161   090-161   090-161 examen   090-161   090-161

NO.3 Which command can broadcast a warning to users that the system is going down in 15
minutes?
A. sync(ADM)
B. init 1
C. haltsys(ADM)
D. shutdown(ADM)
Answer: D

SCO   090-161 examen   090-161   090-161   090-161

NO.4 The login sequence is best described by which ordered sequence of processes?
A. login, init, getty, shell
B. login, getty, init, shell
C. init, getty, login, shell
D. init, login, getty, shell
Answer: C

SCO examen   090-161   certification 090-161   certification 090-161

NO.5 How can you identify most daemon processes from the output of the following command: ps
-ef
A. There is a UID of system.
B. There is a ? in the tty column.
C. There is a d in the status column.
D. There is a PID greater than 500.
Answer: B

SCO examen   090-161   090-161 examen

NO.6 Which crontab entry will mail /usr/adm/messages to root once every weekday (excluding
Saturday
and Sunday) at 9 pm?
A. 0 9 * * 1-5 mail root < /usr/adm/messages
B. 0 9 * * * mail root < /usr/adm/messages
C. 0 21 * * 1-5 mail root < /usr/adm/messages
D. 0 21 * * * mail root < /usr/adm/messages
Answer: C

certification SCO   090-161 examen   090-161   090-161

NO.7 Which filesystems support versioning?
A. EAFS and HTFS
B. DTFS and HTFS
C. EAFS, DTFS, and HTFS
D. All supported filesystems
Answer: B

certification SCO   090-161 examen   090-161

NO.8 For Bourne and Korn shell users, one of the PERSONAL startup files is:
A. $HOME/.login
B. $HOME/.profile
C. /etc/login
D. /etc/profile
Answer: B

certification SCO   090-161 examen   090-161   090-161   090-161

NO.9 Which programs are executed by init(M) from the /etc/inittab file when the system enters
run-level
2?
A. /etc/ifor_pmd, /etc/asktimerc, and /etc/smmck
B. /etc/ifor_pmd, /etc/asktimerc, and /etc/authckrc
C. /etc/asktimerc and /etc/authckrc
D. /etc/ifor_pmd and /etc/asktimerc
Answer: C

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NO.10 What does the following command line do: tar tv
A. It shows the type of archive device.
B. It shows the time when an archive was created.
C. It updates the time stamp on the default tar(C) device.
D. It displays the table of contents of the default tar(C) device.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: ES0-004

Nom d'Examen: RES Software (RES PowerFuse 2010 Basic Exam)

Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 When a user has a question about the user environment, the BEST place for an administrator to find
the answer is in
A. Diagnostics > Usage Tracking.
B. Security > Sessions.
C. Composition > User Settings.
D. Diagnostics > Workspace Analysis.
Answer: D

RES Software   ES0-004   certification ES0-004   ES0-004   ES0-004   ES0-004 examen

NO.2 Terminal Servers and Workstations use RES PowerFuse licenses based on
A. the number of RES PowerFuse Agents.
B. the type of database server.
C. number of user sessions.
D. the operation system.
Answer: C

RES Software   certification ES0-004   ES0-004

NO.3 Which of the following USB rules can be used when creating a Zone?
1. USB Vendor ID
2. USB Product ID
3. USB Serial number
4. USB Storage capacity
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

RES Software examen   certification ES0-004   ES0-004   ES0-004 examen

NO.4 What is the extension of the files saved by the Desktop Sampler?
A. .XML
B. .ZIP
C. .DTS
D. .XBB
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following tasks can be configured in an Alerting notification type? 1. External task 2.
Mobile text message 3. RES Wisdom task 4. E-mail message
A. 1 and 4
B. 1, 2, and 4
C. 1, 3, and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

RES Software   certification ES0-004   ES0-004 examen   certification ES0-004

NO.6 The "Comments" which can be specified when assigning Application Managers to an application is
displayed to the
A. end user when the application is started.
B. end user when access to the application is requested.
C. Application Manager when users are assigned to the application.
D. Application Manager when information about the application is viewed.
Answer: C

RES Software   ES0-004   ES0-004   certification ES0-004   ES0-004 examen

NO.7 Combine different parts of several Active Directory forests, plus a number of Microsoft Windows
Domains
A. 1 and 3
B. 3 and 4
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D

RES Software   ES0-004   certification ES0-004   certification ES0-004   ES0-004 examen   certification ES0-004
3.An administrator changed the Zero Profile mode of an existing application. Users had existing stored
settings for that application. A week later, the administrator switched the application back into its previous
Zero Profile mode. Users now have their previous, week-old settings back. Which Migration Setting has
the administrator used for the switches?
A. Ignore
B. Remove
C. Apply/Convert and keep
D. Apply/Convert and remove
Answer: A

RES Software   ES0-004 examen   ES0-004   ES0-004
4.At which of the following points can Folder Synchronization be initiated? 1. Logon 2. Refresh 3.
Reconnect 4. Logoff
A. 1 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2, and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D

RES Software   ES0-004   ES0-004 examen   ES0-004   ES0-004   ES0-004

NO.8 By applying an Exclusive Filter in the Management Console, which objects are displayed?
A. Only objects that do NOT match the specified Filter criteria
B. Only objects that match the specified Filter criteria directly
C. All objects, but objects that do not directly match the specified Filter criteria appear read-only
D. All objects, and objects that directly match the specified Filter criteria have an icon indicating they can
be modified
Answer: B

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NO.9 When using multiple directory services concurrently, an administrator can do which of the following.?
1. Configure a RES PowerFuse Directory Service for tree A and for tree B, but not (yet) for
tree C
2. Configure a RES PowerFuse Directory Service for a part of a Novell tree (by setting a mount point)

NO.10 A Scope limits a local administrator to his own OU. What is the BEST way to let the administrator
define separate E- Mail Template Outlook signatures for his part of the organization (based on OU)?
A. Create separate instances of Outlook for each OU, each referring to its own E-Mail Template.
B. Create separate instances of Outlook for each OU, each referring to the same E-Mail Template.
C. Create one global instance of Outlook referring to one E-Mail Template with access control set to all
OUs.
D. Create one global instance of Outlook referring to separate E-Mail Templates with access control set to
the respective OUs.
Answer: D

RES Software   ES0-004 examen   ES0-004

NO.11 An administrator has configured User Settings for a specific application in a RES PowerFuse
environment to track registry and files. Global User Settings is enabled. At application level, the User
Setting is enabled, Preserve is checked, Apply is not checked. Sampling ratio is set at 1:1. Start tracking
changes is configured to track changes immediately. What would be the end behavior for this User
Settings configuration?
A. No changes are saved or restored in the user session.
B. Changes are fully saved and fully restored in the user session.
C. Changes are fully saved but not restored in the user session.
D. New changes are not saved but previous settings are restored in the user session.
Answer: C

RES Software   ES0-004   ES0-004   ES0-004   ES0-004 examen   ES0-004

NO.12 When publishing applications in Citrix XenApp using RES PowerFuse, Citrix XenApp published
applications can be assigned to one or more Organizational Units. How can the published applications be
configured to keep track of all changes in membership of that OU?
A. Configure the Citrix XenApp integration settings to rebuild its user list for OU-based applications at set
times.
B. Configure the application settings to rebuild its user list for the OUs concerned.
C. Schedule the Citrix XenApp integration settings to republish the application at set times.
D. Schedule the application to be republished at set times.
Answer: A

RES Software   ES0-004   certification ES0-004   ES0-004   ES0-004

NO.13 Use several Active Directory forests in one RES PowerFuse environment

NO.14 If Time Restrictions have been configured for an application, how can the end user check to determine
at what times the application is available?
A. By clicking the Time Left system tray icon
B. By viewing the Opening Times tab for that application in PowerHelp
C. By checking the properties of the application's shortcut in the Start Menu
D. By viewing the Options tab in the Workspace Preferences tool
Answer: B

RES Software   ES0-004   certification ES0-004   ES0-004 examen

NO.15 When a drive mapping for a user fails, in which of the following may the event be displayed? 1. Audit
Trail 2. Usage Tracking viewer 3. An Alerting e-mail 4. Workspace Analysis details
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
Answer: C

RES Software   ES0-004 examen   certification ES0-004   ES0-004

NO.16 Which of the following conditions need to be true to deny access when a user logs on to a computer?
1. All assigned Workspace Containers contain access control.
2. The user's computer is assigned to one or more Workspace Containers.
3. All assigned Workspace Containers are based on (partial) client name.
4. The user has not been granted access to any of the Workspace Containers.
A. 1 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

certification RES Software   ES0-004   ES0-004 examen

NO.17 From which of the following sections can Remote Assistance be started by users belonging to a
specified helper group?
1. Agents Overview
2. User Sessions
3. Workspace Analysis
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 3
Answer: B

certification RES Software   ES0-004 examen   ES0-004   ES0-004 examen

NO.18 User Workspace Management consists of
A. Context, Composition and Content
B. Context, Content and Security
C. Security, Diagnostics and Setup
D. Composition, Security, and Extensions
Answer: B

certification RES Software   certification ES0-004   ES0-004

NO.19 After a full installation of RES PowerFuse on a workstation, an administrator has chosen not to run the
Workspace Composer automatically. How can the administrator configure to run the Workspace
Composer for all users on that workstation?
1. Use SetShell
2. Set the applicable registry key manually
3. Edit the RES PowerFuse Agent
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D

RES Software   ES0-004   ES0-004 examen   ES0-004 examen

NO.20 The Desktop Sampler collects information about Context and Composition. Which of the following
Composition information is sampled?
1. Network Printers
2. User Registry Settings
3. Environment Variables
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A

RES Software   certification ES0-004   ES0-004 examen   ES0-004

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Code d'Examen: 1Z1-051

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database: SQL Fundamentals I)

Questions et réponses: 254 Q&As

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NO.1 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the SALES, CUSTOMERS, PRODUCTS, and TIMES
tables.
The PROD_ID column is the foreign key in the SALES table, which references the PRODUCTS table.
Similarly, the CUST_ID and TIME_ID columns are also foreign keys in the SALES table referencing the
CUSTOMERS and TIMES tables, respectively.
Evaluate the following CREATE TABLE command:
CREATE TABLE new_sales(prod_id, cust_id, order_date DEFAULT SYSDATE)
AS
SELECT prod_id, cust_id, time_id
FROM sales;
Which statement is true regarding the above command?
A. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the DEFAULT value cannot be specified in the
column definition.
B. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the NOT NULL constraints defined on the specified
columns would be passed to the new table.
C. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the column names in the CREATE TABLE
command and the SELECT clause do not match.
D. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the FOREIGN KEY constraints defined on the
specified columns would be passed to the new table.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table:
name Null Type
PROMO_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(6)
PROMO_NAME NOT NULL VARCHAR2(30)
PROMO_CATEGORY NOT NULL VARCHAR2(30)
PROMO_COST NOT NULL NUMBER(10,2)
The management wants to see a report of unique promotion costs in each promotion category.
Which query would achieve the required result?
A. SELECT DISTINCT promo_cost, promo_category FROM promotions;
B. SELECT promo_category, DISTINCT promo_cost FROM promotions;
C. SELECT DISTINCT promo_cost, DISTINCT promo_category FROM promotions;
D. SELECT DISTINCT promo_category, promo_cost FROM promotions ORDER BY 1;
Answer: D

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NO.3 View the Exhibit and examine the data in the CUSTOMERS table.
Evaluate the following query:
SQL> SELECT cust_name AS "NAME", cust_credit_limit/2 AS MIDPOINT,MIDPOINT+100 AS "MAX
LOWER LIMIT"
FROM customers;
The above query produces an error on execution.
What is the reason for the error?
A. An alias cannot be used in an expression.
B. The a lias NAME should not be enclosed with in double quotation marks .
C. The MIDPOINT+100 expression gives an error because CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT contains NULL
values.
D. The a lias MIDPOINT should be enclosed with in double quotation marks for the
CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT/2 expression .
Answer: A

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NO.4 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table.
You need to generate a report in the following format:
CATEGORIES
5MP Digital Photo Camera's category is Photo
Y Box's category is Electronics
Envoy Ambassador's category is Hardware
Which two queries would give the required output? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT prod_name q'''s category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
B. SELECT prod_name q'['s ]'category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
C. SELECT prod_name q'\'s\' ' category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
D. SELECT prod_name q'<'s >' 'category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
Answer: CD

Oracle   1Z1-051   certification 1Z1-051

NO.5 You need to produce a report where each customer's credit limit has been incremented by $1000. In
the output, t he customer's last name should have the heading Name and the incremented credit limit
should be labeled New Credit Limit. The column headings should have only the first letter of each word in
uppercase .
Which statement would accomplish this requirement?
A. SELECT cust_last_name Name, cust_credit_limit + 1000
"New Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
B. SELECT cust_last_name AS Name, cust_credit_limit + 1000
AS New Credit Limit
FROM customers;
C. SELECT cust_last_name AS "Name", cust_credit_limit + 1000
AS "New Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
D. SELECT INITCAP(cust_last_name) "Name", cust_credit_limit + 1000
INITCAP("NEW CREDIT LIMIT")
FROM customers;
Answer: C

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NO.6 View the Exhibit; e xamine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table.
Each promotion has a duration of at least seven days .
Your manager has asked you to generate a report, which provides the weekly cost for each promotion
done to l date.
Which query would achieve the required result?
A. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/promo_end_date-promo_begin_date/7
FROM promotions;
B. SELECT promo_name,(promo_cost/promo_end_date-promo_begin_date)/7
FROM promotions;
C. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/(promo_end_date-promo_begin_date/7)
FROM promotions;
D. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/((promo_end_date-promo_begin_date)/7)
FROM promotions;
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which SQL statements would display the value 1890.55 as $1,890.55? (Choose three .)
A. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$0G000D00')
FROM DUAL;
B. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$9,999V99')
FROM DUAL;
C. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99,999D99')
FROM DUAL;
D. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99G999D00')
FROM DUAL;
E. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99G999D99')
FROM DUAL;
Answer: ADE

Oracle   1Z1-051   certification 1Z1-051   1Z1-051 examen

NO.8 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table.
All products have a list price.
You issue the following command to display the total price of each product after a discount of 25% and a
tax of 15% are applied on it. Freight charges of $100 have to be applied to all the products.
SQL>SELECT prod_name, prod_list_price -(prod_list_price*(25/100))
+(prod_list_price -(prod_list_price*(25/100))*(15/100))+100
AS "TOTAL PRICE"
FROM products;
What would be the outcome if all the parenthese s are removed from the above statement?
A. It produces a syntax error.
B. The result remains unchanged.
C. The total price value would be lower than the correct value.
D. The total price value would be higher than the correct value.
Answer: B

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NO.9 You need to extract details of those products in the SALES table where the PROD_ID column
contains the string '_D123'.
Which WHERE clause could be used in the SELECT statement to get the required output?
A. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%_D123%' ESCAPE '_'
B. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%\_D123%' ESCAPE '\'
C. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%_D123%' ESCAPE '%_'
D. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%\_D123%' ESCAPE '\_'
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z1-051 examen   certification 1Z1-051

NO.10 Examine the structure of the SHIPMENTS table:
name Null Type
PO_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(3)
PO_DATE NOT NULL DATE
SHIPMENT_DATE NOT NULL DATE
SHIPMENT_MODE VARCHAR2(30)
SHIPMENT_COST NUMBER(8,2)
You want to generate a report that displays the PO_ID and the penalty amount to be paid if the
SHIPMENT_DATE is later than one month from the PO_DATE. The penalty is $20 per day.
Evaluate the following two queries:
SQL> SELECT po_id, CASE
WHEN MONTHS_BETWEEN (shipment_date,po_date)>1 THEN
TO_CHAR((shipment_date - po_date) * 20) ELSE 'No Penalty' END PENALTY
FROM shipments;
SQL>SELECT po_id, DECODE
(MONTHS_BETWEEN (po_date,shipment_date)>1,
TO_CHAR((shipment_date - po_date) * 20), 'No Penalty') PENALTY
FROM shipments;
Which statement is true regarding the above commands?
A. Both execute successfully and give correct results.
B. Only the first query executes successfully but gives a wrong result.
C. Only the first query executes successfully and gives the correct result.
D. Only the second query executes successfully but gives a wrong result.
E. Only the second query executes successfully and gives the correct result.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z1-051   1Z1-051   1Z1-051 examen

NO.11 Which two statements are true regarding the USING and ON clauses in table joins? (Choose two.)
A. Both USING and ON clauses can be used for equijoins and nonequijoins.
B. A maximum of one pair of columns can be joined between two tables using the ON clause.
C. The ON clause can be used to join tables on columns that have different names but compatible data
types.
D. The WHERE clause can be used to apply additional conditions in SELECT statements containing the
ON or the USING clause.
Answer: CD

Oracle   1Z1-051   certification 1Z1-051

NO.12 Which two statements are true regarding single row functions? (Choose two.)
A. They a ccept only a single argument.
B. They c an be nested only to two levels.
C. Arguments can only be column values or constants.
D. They a lways return a single result row for every row of a queried table.
E. They c an return a data type value different from the one that is referenced.
Answer: DE

Oracle   certification 1Z1-051   1Z1-051   1Z1-051

NO.13 Which statement is true regarding the INTERSECT operator?
A. It ignores NULL values.
B. Reversing the order of the intersected tables alters the result.
C. The names of columns in all SELECT statements must be identical.
D. The number of columns and data types must be identical for all SELECT statements in the query.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z1-051   1Z1-051   1Z1-051

NO.14 Evaluate the following query:
SELECT INTERVAL '300' MONTH,
INTERVAL '54-2' YEAR TO MONTH,
INTERVAL '11:12:10.1234567' HOUR TO SECOND
FROM dual;
What is the correct output of the above query?
A. +25-00 , +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457
B. +00-300, +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457
C. +25-00 , +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457
D. +00-300 , +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1Z1-051   certification 1Z1-051   1Z1-051   1Z1-051 examen

NO.15 Using the CUSTOMERS table, you need to generate a report that shows 50% of each credit
amount in each income level. The report should NOT show any repeated credit amounts in each income
level.
Which query would give the required result?
A. SELECT cust_income_level, DISTINCT cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
B. SELECT DISTINCT cust_income_level, DISTINCT cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
C. SELECT DISTINCT cust_income_level ' ' cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
D. SELECT cust_income_level ' ' cust_credit_limit * 0.50 AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
Answer: C

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NO.16 View the Exhibit to examine the description for the SALES table.
Which views can have all DML operations performed on it? (Choose all that apply.)
A. CREATE VIEW v3
AS SELECT * FROM SALES
WHERE cust_id = 2034
WITH CHECK OPTION;
B. CREATE VIEW v1
AS SELECT * FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
WITH CHECK OPTION;
C. CREATE VIEW v2
AS SELECT prod_id, cust_id, time_id FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
WITH CHECK OPTION;
D. CREATE VIEW v4
AS SELECT prod_id, cust_id, SUM(quantity_sold) FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
GROUP BY prod_id, cust_id
WITH CHECK OPTION;
Answer: AB

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NO.17 View the E xhibit and examine the data in the EMPLOYEES table.
You want to generate a report showing the total compensation paid to each employee to date.
You issue the following query:
SQL>SELECT ename ' joined on ' hiredate
', the total compensation paid is '
TO_CHAR(ROUND(ROUND(SYSDATE-hiredate)/365) * sal + comm)
"COMPENSATION UNTIL DATE"
FROM employees;
What is the outcome?
A. It generates an error because the alias is not valid.
B. It executes successfully and gives the correct output.
C. It executes successfully but does not give the correct output.
D. It generates an error because the usage of the ROUND function in the expression is not valid.
E. It generates an error because the concatenation operator can be used to combine only two items.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which three statements are true regarding the data types in Oracle Database 10g/11g? (Choose
three.)
A. Only one LONG column can be used per table.
B. A TIMESTAMP data type column stores only time values with fractional seconds.
C. The BLOB data type column is used to store binary data in an operating system file.
D. The minimum column width that can be specified for a VARCHAR2 data type column is one.
E. The value for a CHAR data type column is blank-padded to the maximum defined column width.
Answer: ADE

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NO.19 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table.
Which two tasks would require subqueries or joins to be executed in a single statement? (Choose two.)
A. listing of customers who do not have a credit limit and were born before 1980
B. finding the number of customers, in each city, whose marital status is 'married'
C. finding the average credit limit of male customers residing in 'Tokyo' or 'Sydney'
D. listing of those customers whose credit limit is the same as the credit limit of customers residing in the
city 'Tokyo'
E. finding the number of customers, in each city, whose credit limit is more than the average credit limit of
all the customers
Answer: DE

Oracle examen   1Z1-051 examen   1Z1-051

NO.20 Evaluate the following query:
SQL> SELECT promo_name q'{'s start date was }' promo_begin_date
AS "Promotion Launches"
FROM promotions;
What would be the outcome of the above query?
A. It produces an error because flower braces have been used.
B. It produces an error because the data types are not matching.
C. It executes successfully and introduces an 's at the end of each promo_name in the output.
D. It executes successfully and displays the literal " {'s start date was } " for each row in the output.
Answer: C

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